In which clinical situation would the nurse most likely anticipate a fetal bradycardia?
Drug consumed by the mother like cocaine.
Prolonged umbilical cord compression.
Fetal anemia.
Tocolytic treatment using terbutaline.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Cocaine is a stimulant that typically causes fetal tachycardia (an elevated fetal heart rate) due to its sympathomimetic effects, increasing maternal and subsequently fetal heart rate and blood pressure. It does not usually lead to fetal bradycardia.
Choice B rationale
Prolonged umbilical cord compression can lead to fetal bradycardia because it restricts oxygenated blood flow to the fetus. The baroreceptors in the fetus respond to decreased oxygen by slowing the heart rate in an attempt to conserve oxygen and maintain perfusion to vital organs.
Choice C rationale
Fetal anemia, a decrease in red blood cell count, can lead to fetal tachycardia as the heart attempts to compensate for reduced oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing cardiac output. Bradycardia is not a typical initial response to fetal anemia.
Choice D rationale
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the smooth muscle of the uterus and prevent preterm labor. Its side effects often include maternal and fetal tachycardia due to its beta-adrenergic agonist activity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The complication that poses the greatest risk for the client is hemorrhage as evidenced by their amount of lochia.
Rationale for correct answers
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a major concern when excessive lochia and a boggy uterus are present. The nurse’s assessment reveals a boggy fundus, which firmed with massage but then softened again, indicating uterine atony, a leading cause of PPH. Additionally, the saturation of the perineal pad with lochia rubra and small clots suggests ongoing bleeding that requires close monitoring.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Infection: No fever (≥38°C or 100.4°F) or foul-smelling lochia, which would indicate postpartum endometritis.
- Thrombophlebitis: No calf pain, swelling, or localized tenderness suggesting deep vein thrombosis.
- Mastitis: Breasts are soft, warm, and tender but without redness or localized pain, making mastitis unlikely.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Breast tenderness: Expected due to milk production, not indicative of infection or complications.
- Calf pain: No evidence of thrombophlebitis or deep vein thrombosis.
- Fever: Temperature is normal at 37.2°C, ruling out systemic infection.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While assessing cervical dilation is important for understanding the progress of labor, it is not the priority intervention in the case of umbilical cord prolapse. The immediate danger is fetal oxygen deprivation due to compression of the prolapsed cord. Delaying intervention to perform a cervical exam could worsen fetal hypoxia.
Choice B rationale
Increasing the rate of intravenous fluids might be indicated to support maternal blood pressure and placental perfusion, but it does not directly address the immediate problem of cord compression. The priority is to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord to restore fetal oxygen supply.
Choice C rationale
Administering oxygen to the mother is a helpful supportive measure to increase the oxygen available to the fetus. However, it does not directly relieve the compression on the umbilical cord, which is the immediate life-threatening situation for the fetus.
Choice D rationale
Repositioning the mother to a knee-chest position (or Trendelenburg) uses gravity to help relieve pressure on the prolapsed umbilical cord by moving the presenting part of the fetus away from the pelvis. This is the priority nursing intervention as it directly aims to improve fetal oxygenation by reducing cord compression until the fetus can be delivered. .
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