When entering a client's room, the nurse observes that the client is using pursed-lip breathing. It is most important for the nurse to monitor the client for which problem?
Syncope.
Acute pain.
Tetany.
Dyspnea.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Syncope is incorrect. Syncope, or fainting, can occur in individuals experiencing severe respiratory distress or hypoxia. Pursed-lip breathing is often used as a technique to manage dyspnea and improve oxygenation, which can help prevent syncope by ensuring adequate ventilation and oxygen delivery to the body's tissues. However, syncope is not the primary concern associated with the observation of pursed-lip breathing; instead, it is a potential consequence of inadequate oxygenation.
Choice B Reason:
Acute pain is not directly related to the observation of pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing is a technique used to manage dyspnea and improve ventilation efficiency in individuals with respiratory conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or asthma exacerbation. While pain can exacerbate respiratory distress in some cases, the primary focus when observing pursed-lip breathing is to assess and address respiratory status rather than pain management.
Choice C Reason:
Tetany is incorrect. Tetany, characterized by muscle spasms due to low calcium levels, is not directly associated with the observation of pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing is a respiratory technique used to manage dyspnea and improve ventilation in individuals with respiratory conditions such as COPD or asthma. While respiratory distress can lead to various physiological responses, tetany is not a typical manifestation observed in individuals using pursed-lip breathing.
Choice D Reason:
Dyspnea is correct. Pursed-lip breathing is a technique often used by individuals with respiratory conditions to relieve shortness of breath and improve breathing efficiency. The primary reason for using pursed-lip breathing is to help alleviate dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, by promoting more effective exhalation and preventing airway collapse during expiration. Monitoring for dyspnea is crucial in this situation to assess the client's respiratory status, including the severity of breathing difficulty and any associated symptoms, and to guide further interventions to address the underlying cause of dyspnea. While syncope (fainting), acute pain, and tetany (muscle spasms due to low calcium levels) are potential concerns in certain clinical contexts, they are not directly associated with the observation of pursed-lip breathing. Therefore, dyspnea is the most relevant problem for the nurse to monitor in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Fluid volume excess is incorrect. Fluid volume excess refers to an overabundance of fluid in the body, leading to symptoms such as edema, weight gain, and hypertension. However, a BMI of 14 kg/m^2 indicates underweight, not fluid volume excess. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice B Reason:
Unbalanced nutrition, less than body needs is correct. A BMI of less than 18.5 indicates underweight according to the provided reference range. Underweight individuals often do not consume enough nutrients to meet their body's needs, leading to potential nutritional deficiencies. Therefore, the nursing problem of "Unbalanced nutrition, less than body needs" is appropriate for addressing the client's low BMI.
Choice C Reason:
Unbalanced nutrition, greater than body needs is incorrect. This choice would be more applicable if the client's BMI indicated overweight or obesity, as it suggests an excess intake of nutrients relative to the body's needs. However, a BMI of 14 kg/m^2 indicates underweight, not excess weight. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice D Reason:
Fluid volume deficit is incorrect. Fluid volume deficit refers to a decreased amount of fluid in the body, leading to symptoms such as dehydration, decreased urine output, and hypotension. However, a low BMI does not necessarily indicate fluid volume deficit; it primarily reflects undernutrition. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Chronic pancreatitis is incorrect. Chronic pancreatitis typically presents with persistent, dull abdominal pain that may radiate to the back, often aggravated by eating rather than relieved by it. The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is not typically described as gnawing or relieved by eating.
Choice B Reason:
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is correct. Peptic ulcer disease involves the development of open sores (ulcers) in the lining of the stomach (gastric ulcers) or the upper part of the small intestine (duodenal ulcers). The pain associated with PUD typically occurs in the epigastric region (upper abdomen) and can be described as gnawing, burning, or dull. The pain tends to worsen when the stomach is empty (hunger pains) and is relieved by eating or taking antacids. These symptoms are due to the increase in gastric acid secretion, which exacerbates the ulcer's irritation when the stomach is empty and is neutralized when food buffers the acid. Therefore, the presentation described is consistent with peptic ulcer disease (PUD).
Choice C Reason:
Esophagitis is incorrect. Esophagitis is inflammation of the esophagus and may present with symptoms such as heartburn, difficulty swallowing, or chest pain behind the breastbone. However, the symptoms described, particularly the worsening of pain when hungry and improvement after eating, are not typical of esophagitis.
Choice D Reason:
Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is incorrect. While gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) can cause epigastric discomfort or heartburn, the symptoms described in the scenario are more indicative of pain related to hunger and relief after eating, which is more characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Additionally, GERD symptoms are typically worsened by eating, lying down, or bending over, rather than improved.
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