When developing a teaching plan for a client with peripheral artery disease, the nurse should explain that intermittent claudication occurs as the result of which underlying pathophysiology?
Reduced blood flow occurs when legs are elevated.
Reddened color occurs when the feet are dependent.
Arterial occlusion causes ischemic pain during activity.
Reduction in blood supply leads to muscle atrophy.
The Correct Answer is C
Intermittent claudication is a common symptom experienced by individuals with peripheral artery disease (PAD). It occurs due to the underlying pathophysiology of arterial occlusion and ischemia during physical activity. Here's why option C is the correct choice:
A) Reduced blood flow occurs when legs are elevated:
This statement is not accurate regarding the pathophysiology of intermittent claudication in PAD. When legs are elevated, gravity assists venous return, which may actually improve blood flow temporarily. However, intermittent claudication occurs during activity, not when the legs are elevated.
B) Reddened color occurs when the feet are dependent:
This statement is unrelated to the pathophysiology of intermittent claudication. Redness when the feet are dependent may suggest venous insufficiency rather than arterial occlusion characteristic of PAD.
C) Arterial occlusion causes ischemic pain during activity:
Correct. Intermittent claudication is caused by inadequate blood flow to the muscles during physical activity due to arterial occlusion in PAD. As the demand for oxygen increases during exercise, the narrowed arteries cannot supply sufficient blood flow, leading to ischemic pain in the affected muscles. This pain typically resolves with rest and recurs upon resuming activity.
D) Reduction in blood supply leads to muscle atrophy:
Muscle atrophy may occur in severe cases of PAD with chronic ischemia, but it is not the primary cause of intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is primarily attributed to inadequate blood flow during activity, which results in ischemic pain rather than muscle atrophy.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the joints and surrounding tissues. Here's an explanation of the pathophysiological process producing the symptoms of gout:
A) Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation:
Correct. In gout, elevated levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation and deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, particularly in the big toe joint (first metatarsophalangeal joint) in many cases. These crystals trigger an inflammatory response, activating immune cells and causing swelling, redness, warmth, and severe pain in the affected joint. The inflammation and irritation result from the body's immune response to the presence of these crystals.
B) Chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes and joint inflammation:
This option describes a process more characteristic of osteoarthritis, where degeneration of joint cartilage leads to the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs) and joint inflammation. Gout involves the deposition of urate crystals rather than direct chondrocyte injury.
C) An immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue results in inflammation:
This process describes the pathophysiology of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, where immune complexes and autoantibodies contribute to inflammation and tissue damage. In gout, the inflammation is primarily triggered by the deposition of urate crystals rather than immune complex deposition.
D) An autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen causes joint destruction:
This option describes the autoimmune process seen in diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, where antibodies target specific antigens, leading to joint destruction. Gout is not an autoimmune disease, and joint destruction in gout is primarily due to inflammation caused by urate crystal deposition rather than autoimmune mechanisms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, specifically involving the stapes bone. This abnormal bone growth interferes with the transmission of sound vibrations from the middle ear to the inner ear, resulting in conductive hearing loss. Here's a breakdown of each option:
A) Presbycusis:
Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss, typically involving sensorineural components such as the degeneration of hair cells in the inner ear or changes in the auditory nerve. While presbycusis is a common cause of hearing loss in older adults, it is not directly related to otosclerosis or previous ear surgeries.
B) Conductive:
Correct. Otosclerosis primarily affects the middle ear by causing abnormal bone growth around the stapes bone, which can immobilize it and interfere with sound transmission to the inner ear. As a result, individuals with otosclerosis often experience conductive hearing loss, where sound is not effectively conducted from the outer or middle ear to the inner ear.
C) Endolymphatic:
Endolymphatic hydrops, also known as Ménière's disease, involves abnormal fluid accumulation in the inner ear, leading to symptoms such as vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. While inner ear disorders like endolymphatic hydrops can cause sensorineural hearing loss, otosclerosis primarily affects the conductive components of hearing.
D) Sensorineural:
Sensorineural hearing loss occurs due to dysfunction or damage to the inner ear (cochlea) or auditory nerve pathways leading to the brain. This type of hearing loss is typically permanent and can result from various factors, including age-related changes, noise exposure, and certain medical conditions. While sensorineural hearing loss can coexist with conductive hearing loss in some cases, otosclerosis primarily causes conductive hearing loss rather than sensorineural hearing loss.
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