When developing a teaching plan for a client with peripheral artery disease, the nurse should explain that intermittent claudication occurs as the result of which underlying pathophysiology?
Reduced blood flow occurs when legs are elevated.
Reddened color occurs when the feet are dependent.
Arterial occlusion causes ischemic pain during activity.
Reduction in blood supply leads to muscle atrophy.
The Correct Answer is C
Intermittent claudication is a common symptom experienced by individuals with peripheral artery disease (PAD). It occurs due to the underlying pathophysiology of arterial occlusion and ischemia during physical activity. Here's why option C is the correct choice:
A) Reduced blood flow occurs when legs are elevated:
This statement is not accurate regarding the pathophysiology of intermittent claudication in PAD. When legs are elevated, gravity assists venous return, which may actually improve blood flow temporarily. However, intermittent claudication occurs during activity, not when the legs are elevated.
B) Reddened color occurs when the feet are dependent:
This statement is unrelated to the pathophysiology of intermittent claudication. Redness when the feet are dependent may suggest venous insufficiency rather than arterial occlusion characteristic of PAD.
C) Arterial occlusion causes ischemic pain during activity:
Correct. Intermittent claudication is caused by inadequate blood flow to the muscles during physical activity due to arterial occlusion in PAD. As the demand for oxygen increases during exercise, the narrowed arteries cannot supply sufficient blood flow, leading to ischemic pain in the affected muscles. This pain typically resolves with rest and recurs upon resuming activity.
D) Reduction in blood supply leads to muscle atrophy:
Muscle atrophy may occur in severe cases of PAD with chronic ischemia, but it is not the primary cause of intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is primarily attributed to inadequate blood flow during activity, which results in ischemic pain rather than muscle atrophy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Shivering:
Shivering is not a normal inflammatory response to wound healing. It may indicate systemic symptoms such as fever or chills, which could be indicative of infection or other complications.
B) Purulent drainage:
Purulent drainage (pus) is often a sign of infection rather than a normal inflammatory response to wound healing. While some serous or serosanguinous drainage may be expected initially, purulent drainage suggests an abnormal response.
C) Temperature of 102° F (37.8° C):
A temperature of 102° F (37.8° C) is indicative of fever, which can occur in response to infection or inflammation. While fever is part of the inflammatory response, it is not necessarily considered a normal finding in the context of wound healing and may indicate an abnormal response such as infection.
D) Redness and localized heat:
Correct. Redness (erythema) and localized heat are typical signs of the inflammatory phase of wound healing. Inflammation is a normal response to tissue injury and is characterized by increased blood flow to the area, resulting in redness and warmth. These signs indicate that the body's immune response is active and working to repair the injured tissue.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The clinical manifestations described in the scenario, including lethargy, difficulty talking, hypertension (blood pressure of 146/122 mm Hg), and elevated urine specific gravity (1.055), are indicative of Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). Here's a breakdown of the rationale:
A) Hyposecretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH):
Hyposecretion of ADH would result in decreased levels of ADH, leading to increased urine output (polyuria) and low urine specific gravity. This condition is known as diabetes insipidus, characterized by excessive thirst and dilute urine. The elevated urine specific gravity in the scenario is inconsistent with diabetes insipidus. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
B) Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH):
Correct. SIADH is a condition characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary gland, leading to water retention, dilutional hyponatremia, and concentrated urine. The elevated urine specific gravity (1.055) in the scenario indicates concentrated urine, consistent with SIADH. Additionally, lethargy and difficulty talking are common neurological manifestations of hyponatremia, which can occur as a result of water retention in SIADH. The client's hypertension is likely a compensatory response to hyponatremia-induced cerebral edema. Therefore, SIADH is the most likely diagnosis in this context.
C) Hypopituitarism:
Hypopituitarism refers to deficient production of one or more pituitary hormones, which can lead to a variety of endocrine abnormalities depending on which hormones are affected. While it is possible for hypopituitarism to cause hyponatremia, the other clinical manifestations described in the scenario are not typically associated with this condition. Additionally, the elevated urine specific gravity is not consistent with hypopituitarism-induced hyponatremia. Therefore, this option is less likely.
D) Septic shock:
Septic shock is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion due to systemic infection. While septic shock can cause altered mental status, hypotension (not hypertension), and oliguria (not concentrated urine), it is not typically associated with elevated urine specific gravity. Therefore, septic shock is not the most likely diagnosis in this context.
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