A male client with a massive pulmonary embolus is tachycardic, hypotensive, and has audible bilateral pulmonary crackles. His arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH 7.0: PaCO, 66 mm Fig; HCO3- 24 mEq/L (24 mmol/L); PaO, 60 mm Hg. Based on these findings, this client is at greatest risk for which pathophysiological condition?
Reference Ranges:
pH [7.35 to 7.45] PaCO, [35 to 45 mm Hg]
HCO3- [21 to 28 mEq/L (21 to 28 mmol/L)]
PaO, [80 to 100 mm Hg]
Embolic migration.
Massive atelectasis
Respiratory failure.
Pulmonary infarction.
The Correct Answer is C
The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis (pH 7.0, PaCO2 66 mmHg) with compensatory metabolic alkalosis (HCO3- 24 mEq/L). The low PaO2 (60 mmHg) suggests hypoxemia.
pH 7.0: The pH is below the normal range (7.35 to 7.45), indicating acidosis.
PaCO2 66 mmHg: The PaCO2 is elevated above the normal range (35 to 45 mmHg), indicating respiratory acidosis.
HCO3- 24 mEq/L: The bicarbonate level is within the normal range (21 to 28 mEq/L), indicating compensatory metabolic alkalosis.
PaO2 60 mmHg: The PaO2 is decreased below the normal range (80 to 100 mmHg), indicating hypoxemia.
These findings suggest that the client is experiencing respiratory failure, which is characterized by inadequate gas exchange resulting in hypoxemia and hypercapnia. In this case, the massive pulmonary embolus is causing ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch, leading to impaired gas exchange and respiratory compromise. Tachycardia, hypotension, and audible bilateral pulmonary crackles further support the diagnosis of respiratory failure in the context of a massive pulmonary embolus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder characterized by the formation of multiple fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys. One of the complications associated with PKD is hypertension, which often occurs due to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Here's how the pathophysiological process of the RAAS contributes to the client's elevated blood pressure:
A) Intravascular fluid deficit:
In polycystic kidney disease, the development of multiple cysts in the kidneys can impair renal function and lead to decreased filtration and reabsorption capacity. However, this impairment typically leads to fluid retention rather than intravascular fluid deficit, contributing to hypertension rather than hypotension.
B) Renin angiotensin mechanism:
Correct. In PKD, the cysts disrupt normal kidney architecture and function, leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Reduced renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) stimulate the release of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys. Renin acts on angiotensinogen to convert it into angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases peripheral vascular resistance, leading to elevated blood pressure. Additionally, angiotensin II stimulates the secretion of aldosterone, which promotes sodium and water retention, further contributing to hypertension.
C) Inflammatory process of bladder mucosa:
This option is not directly related to the pathophysiological process of hypertension in polycystic kidney disease. Flank pain and hematuria in PKD are often associated with cyst rupture or hemorrhage within the cysts rather than an inflammatory process of the bladder mucosa.
D) Mineral precipitation in urine:
Mineral precipitation in urine, such as the formation of kidney stones, can occur in polycystic kidney disease but is not directly associated with hypertension. Kidney stones may contribute to flank pain and hematuria but do not typically cause systemic hypertension.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Chronic osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of joint cartilage and underlying bone changes. The pathophysiological process of OA involves various factors contributing to joint pain and inflammation. Here's why option C is the correct choice:
A) Inflammation results from deposition of crystals in the synovial space of joints producing irritation:
This statement is more characteristic of crystal-induced arthritis, such as gout or pseudogout, where crystals (e.g., urate or calcium pyrophosphate crystals) deposit in the joints and cause acute inflammation and irritation. While inflammation may occur in OA, it is primarily a result of mechanical stress and cartilage degradation rather than crystal deposition.
B) Inflammation is caused by immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue:
This statement is more characteristic of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA), where immune complex deposition and autoantibody production lead to chronic inflammation and joint damage. In OA, inflammation is not primarily mediated by immune complex deposition or autoantibodies.
C) Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes:
Correct. In osteoarthritis, joint inflammation occurs as a result of chondrocyte injury and cartilage breakdown. Over time, the degenerative changes in the joint lead to the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs) at the joint margins. These changes can irritate surrounding tissues, including the synovium, ligaments, and tendons, contributing to joint pain and inflammation.
D) Joint destruction happens due to an autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen:
This statement is more characteristic of autoimmune arthritis, such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA), where autoantibodies (e.g., rheumatoid factor, anti-citrullinated protein antibodies) target joint tissues, leading to chronic inflammation and joint destruction. In OA, joint destruction primarily results from mechanical stress and wear-and-tear on the joint structures rather than autoimmune mechanisms.
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