When conducting a risk assessment for suicide, the nurse most likely identifies which client as having the greatest risk for completing suicide?
A 30-year-old female client who had a baby three months prior.
A 50-year-old male client who lives on a farm outside the city.
A 30-year-old male client who is married with a new baby.
A 25-year-old female client who atends school full time.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect. While postpartum depression can increase suicide risk, it does not have the highest correlation with completed suicide.
Choice B reason: This is the correct choice. Older male clients, especially those living in rural areas, have a higher risk of completing suicide due to factors like isolation and access to lethal means.
Choice C reason: This choice is incorrect. Being married and having a new baby can be protective factors against suicide.
Choice D reason: This choice is incorrect. While stress from school can contribute to suicide risk, it does not typically pose the highest risk compared to other factors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Separate personalities are not a characteristic of schizophrenia; this is a common misconception. The disorder involving separate personalities is more accurately associated with dissociative identity disorder.
Choice B reason: While mood swings and hostility can occur in schizophrenia, they are not defining features of the disorder. Schizophrenia is primarily characterized by psychosis, which includes delusions and hallucinations.
Choice C reason: Preoccupation with somatic symptoms is more commonly associated with somatic symptom disorder, not schizophrenia. Schizophrenia involves a range of symptoms including cognitive and emotional dysfunctions.
Choice D reason: Thought disturbances, such as disorganized thinking, and hallucinations, particularly auditory ones, are hallmark symptoms of schizophrenia and are often used in its assessment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect. Non-compliance with blood testing does not typically indicate a need for ECT.
Choice B reason: This choice is incorrect. A recent onset of a manic episode is usually managed with medication adjustments, not ECT.
Choice C reason: This choice is incorrect. Cyclothymic disorder is a milder form of bipolar disorder and is not typically treated with ECT.
Choice D reason: This is the correct choice. ECT is often considered for clients with severe depression that is resistant to medication.
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