When assessing a female client who has been taking an antipsychotic medication for the past year, the nurse observes that the client demonstrates involuntary foot tapping while both feet are flat on the floor. The nurse plans to report the observation to the healthcare provider. Which additional action should the nurse take?

Document the finding on the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale.

Assist the client in recognizing her manifestations of anxiety.

Prepare to initiate seizure precautions for the client's safety.

Advise the client that she has developed tolerance to the medication

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale: Documenting the finding on the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is appropriate. The AIMS is a standardized tool used to assess and document abnormal movements associated with antipsychotic medications, such as tardive dyskinesia.

Choice B rationale: Assisting the client in recognizing her manifestations of anxiety is unrelated to the observed foot tapping and does not address the potential side effects of antipsychotic medication.

Choice C rationale: Preparing to initiate seizure precautions for the client's safety is not indicated based on the observed foot tapping. Seizure precautions are not typically associated with antipsychotic medication side effects.

Choice D rationale: Advising the client that she has developed tolerance to the medication is speculative and not supported by the information provided. The observed foot tapping may be indicative of extrapyramidal side effects rather than tolerance.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Giving concise and firm directions for hygiene and dressing helps provide structure and support during periods of manic behavior.

Choice B rationale: Engaging the client in competitive activities may exacerbate manic symptoms, so it is not the best approach.

Choice C rationale: Assigning the client to a single room provides a quieter and less stimulating environment, promoting a more controlled and therapeutic setting. Choice D rationale: Inviting the client for a walk when their energy is high allows for a structured outlet for excess energy and may help with symptom management.

Choice E rationale: Providing television programs with suspense may contribute to overstimulation and is not the best approach during manic episodes.

A. Administer an antianxiolytic medication. B. Insert fecal management tube. C. Insert peripheral intravenous catheter. D. Crush pills and place in applesauce.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Administering an antianxiolytic medication may be appropriate, but addressing the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance is the priority.

Choice B rationale: Inserting a fecal management tube is not the first action to take in response to hemoccult positive liquid stools; addressing fluid balance is more urgent.

Choice C rationale: Inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter is the priority to address the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance and provide necessary hydration and medications.

Choice D rationale: Crushing pills and placing them in applesauce may be considered, but the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance needs prompt attention first.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is planning the care for a client who is hospitalized with a bipolar disorder. The client wanders the hallways, talks excessively, and makes sexual comments about the staff. Which intervention(s) should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

Two days after being admitted with alcohol withdrawal, a client has constant liquid stools and abdominal cramping. The emesis and stool are hemoccult positive. The client is confused and refusing to take oral medication. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

During admission to the psychiatric unit, a client is extremely anxious and reports being worried about the sun coming up the next day. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the admission process?

Which client Information indicates the need for the nurse to use the CAGE questionnaire during the admission interview?

A client with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) reports feeling "driven" to check the locks on the front door at least six times every night. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

The nurse is reviewing an intake mental health assessment with a client who is seeking services for depression. The client reports feeling dizzy, excessively tired, experiencing headaches, and back pain. Which symptom should the nurse suspect is related to the client's feelings of depression?

A client with chronic alcoholism receives a prescription for disulfiram. Which client statement indicates that this medication teaching has been effective?

The nurse is assessing a client with postpartum depression for changes in the mood and cognitive state. Which subjective finding(s) should the nurse identify that are consistent with postpartum depression? Select all that apply.