When assessing a client's range of motion, the nurse notes crepitation with movement of the left knee. Which information in the client's history is most likely related to this finding?

History of a fractured patella.

Knee arthroplasty surgery.

Degenerative disease.

Needle aspiration of the synovial space.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason:
History of a fractured patella is incorrect. While a history of a fractured patella may lead to some degree of crepitation in the knee joint, especially if there was damage to the articular surfaces during the injury, it is less likely to cause widespread crepitation with joint movement. Crepitation associated with a fractured patella would typically be localized to the site of injury rather than throughout the joint.
Choice B Reason:
Knee arthroplasty surgery is incorrect. Knee arthroplasty surgery involves the replacement of a damaged knee joint with an artificial prosthesis. While crepitation can occur in some cases following knee arthroplasty, it is less likely to be the cause of crepitation observed in this scenario, especially if the client's knee arthroplasty was successful and without complications.
Choice C Reason:
Degenerative disease is correct. Degenerative disease of the knee joint, such as osteoarthritis, is a common cause of crepitation during joint movement. Osteoarthritis is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage in the joints, leading to friction between bones and resulting in crepitus. This condition is often associated with aging, repetitive stress on the joints, or underlying joint abnormalities.

Choice D Reason:
Needle aspiration of the synovial space is incorrect. Needle aspiration of the synovial space is a procedure performed to remove excess fluid or to obtain a sample of synovial fluid for diagnostic purposes. While this procedure may be performed for various reasons, it is not directly associated with crepitation in the knee joint.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:
Checking the reading after the other nurse leaves the room is inappropriate. This option suggests waiting until the other nurse leaves to check the reading again. However, there's no guarantee that the discrepancy will resolve itself, and waiting might delay necessary intervention if there is indeed a pulse deficit. Therefore, this option does not address the immediate need for clarification.
Choice B Reason:
Documenting a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute is inappropriate. While there appears to be a difference between the apical and radial pulse readings, it's important to verify the accuracy of the measurements before documenting a pulse deficit. Documenting without confirmation could lead to inaccurate information in the patient's medical record.
Choice C Reason:
Reporting the results to the healthcare provider without confirming the accuracy of the measurements may lead to unnecessary concern or intervention. It's essential to ensure that the findings are accurate before reporting them to the healthcare provider.
Choice D Reason:
Repeating the assessment to obtain another reading is appropriate. This option prioritizes patient safety by acknowledging the need to confirm the accuracy of the measurements. Repeating the assessment allows the nurses to ensure consistency and reliability in their findings before taking further action or reporting to the healthcare provider.
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A. Black tarry stools. B. A cloudy discharge. C. An overactive bladder D. A weak urinary stream.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:
Black tarry stools are inappropriate. Black tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is not directly related to the client's symptoms of suprapubic tenderness and pressure after urination. While it's important to consider other potential health issues, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, it may not be directly relevant to the client's current urinary symptoms.
Choice B Reason:
A cloudy discharge is inappropriate. A cloudy discharge may suggest an infection or inflammation in the urinary tract, but it is not specifically associated with the symptoms described by the client (suprapubic tenderness and pressure after urination). While urinary tract infections (UTIs) can occur in older adults, they may present with symptoms such as urinary urgency, frequency, dysuria, and hematuria, rather than suprapubic tenderness and pressure after urination.
Choice C Reason:
An overactive bladder is inappropriate. While overactive bladder can cause urinary urgency and frequency, it is less likely to present with suprapubic tenderness and pressure after urination. Overactive bladder is characterized by sudden, involuntary contractions of the bladder muscles, leading to a frequent and urgent need to urinate. It may not directly explain the client's symptoms of suprapubic tenderness and pressure after urination, which are more suggestive of urinary obstruction due to BPH.
Choice D Reason:
A weak urinary stream is appropriate. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men characterized by noncancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which can lead to compression of the urethra and urinary symptoms. A weak urinary stream is a classic symptom of BPH due to the obstruction caused by the enlarged prostate gland, which interferes with the normal flow of urine. Therefore, the nurse should expect a weak urinary stream as an additional finding during the client interview, which is consistent with the suspected diagnosis of BPH.

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When assessing a client's range of motion, the nurse notes crepitation with movement of the left knee. Which information in the client's history is most likely related to this finding?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The primary nurse asks another nurse to assist in checking a client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. One nurse counts an apical pulse of 72 beats/minute while the other nurse counts a radial pulse of 88 beats/minute. Which action should the primary nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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