To prevent lipodystrophy in a client receiving insulin therapy, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Inject the insulin syringe at a 90-degree angle.

Avoid the deltoid when injecting the insulin.

Rotate injection sites correctly.

Massage the injection site.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Injecting the insulin syringe at a 90-degree angle is a technique used to ensure that the insulin is delivered into the subcutaneous tissue. However, this does not specifically prevent lipodystrophy.

Choice B rationale

Avoiding the deltoid when injecting insulin is not typically a recommendation for preventing lipodystrophy. Insulin is usually injected into the fatty tissue just under the skin in the abdomen, thighs, buttocks, or upper arms.

Choice C rationale

Rotating injection sites correctly is a key strategy for preventing lipodystrophy. Lipodystrophy refers to abnormal changes in the fat tissue under the skin and can be caused by repeatedly injecting insulin into the same spot.

Choice D rationale

Massaging the injection site is not typically recommended as it can cause the insulin to be absorbed too quickly.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While it might seem that smaller doses of both drugs could be used when they are prescribed together, this is not the primary reason for using heparin and warfarin together. Both drugs have different mechanisms of action and are used for their unique therapeutic effects.

Choice B rationale

The combination of heparin and warfarin does not facilitate thrombolysis more quickly. Thrombolysis is the process of breaking down clots, and while these medications can prevent the formation of new clots, they do not actively break down existing ones.

Choice C rationale

Heparin and warfarin are often used together in the treatment of thrombophlebitis because they provide different benefits. Heparin acts quickly to prevent further clotting and allows the body to naturally break down existing clots. Warfarin, on the other hand, takes several days to become effective. Therefore, heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the warfarin becomes effective.

Choice D rationale

While it’s true that the combination of heparin and warfarin provides immediate anticoagulation, this is primarily due to the action of heparin. Warfarin takes several days to become effective, so it does not contribute to the immediate anticoagulant effect.

A. Wound infection. B. Internal bleeding. C. Graft rupture. D. Compartment syndrome.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice D rationale

The symptoms described - edema, severe pain, paresthesia, and tightness of the operative limb

- are indicative of Compartment Syndrome. This is a serious condition that can occur after surgery, where increased pressure within one of the body’s compartments results in insufficient blood supply to the area. It requires immediate treatment to prevent permanent damage.

Choice A rationale

While wound infection is a possible post-operative complication, it would typically present with symptoms such as redness, increased pain at the wound site, purulent discharge, and possibly fever. The symptoms described do not specifically indicate a wound infection.

Choice B rationale

Internal bleeding could cause pain and swelling, but it would likely also present with signs of shock, such as low blood pressure, increased heart rate, and altered mental status. The symptoms provided do not clearly indicate internal bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Graft rupture is a serious complication that could potentially cause severe pain and swelling. However, it would also likely cause significant hemodynamic instability, including hypotension and tachycardia. The symptoms described are more indicative of Compartment Syndrome.

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To prevent lipodystrophy in a client receiving insulin therapy, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is receiving heparin sodium 1000 units per hour via an infusion and warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO for thrombophlebitis in the left leg. The nurse educates the client that heparin and warfarin are prescribed together because:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

A patient recovering from aorto-femoral bypass surgery has developed edema, severe pain, paresthesia, and tightness of the operative limb. The nurse recognizes that what post-operative complication is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice D rationale

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

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