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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one:

Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours.

Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts.

Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester.

It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours. This is because this response provides accurate and clear instructions on how to perform kick counts, which are a simple and non-invasive method of monitoring fetal activity and health. Kick counts can help detect changes in fetal movement paterns that may indicate fetal distress or hypoxia.

Choice B Reason: Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts. This is an insufficient answer that does not address the patient's question or demonstrate eﬀective communication skills. Providing writen information alone may not ensure the patient's understanding or compliance with kick counts.

Choice C Reason: Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester. This is an incorrect answer that contradicts the evidence and guidelines on kick counts. Kick counts are recommended for all pregnant women, especially in the third trimester, when fetal movements are more noticeable and consistent.

Choice D Reason: It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy. This is an incorrect answer that discourages the patient from performing kick counts and may give her a false sense of security. Kick counts are important for all pregnant women, regardless of their risk status, as they can help identify potential problems that may require further evaluation or intervention.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Latent phase of the first stage of labor. This is because this phase is characterized by mild and irregular contractions, slow cervical dilation (up to 4 cm), minimal cervical eﬀacement (up to 40%), and minimal discomfort or pain. The latent phase is also known as the early phase or preparatory phase of labor.

Choice B Reason: Transition phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that describes a diﬀerent phase with diﬀerent characteristics. The transition phase is marked by strong and frequent contractions, rapid cervical dilation (from 8 to 10 cm), complete cervical eﬀacement (100%), and intense discomfort or pain. The transition phase is also known as the terminal phase or acceleration phase of labor.

Choice C Reason: Perineal phase of the second stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another stage and phase with diﬀerent features. The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with delivery of the baby. The perineal phase is the last part of the second stage, where the baby's head crowns and emerges through the vaginal opening.

Choice D Reason: Active phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that indicates another phase with diﬀerent atributes. The active phase is characterized by moderate and regular contractions, progressive cervical dilation (from 4 to 8 cm), increased cervical eﬀacement (from 40% to 80%), and increased discomfort or pain. The active phase is also known as the middle phase or dilatation phase of labor.

A. Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. B. Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. C. Skin color jaundiced. D. Chest retractions.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal apical pulse for a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. A high pulse rate may indicate fever, infection, anemia, or dehydration. A low pulse rate may indicate hypothermia, hypoxia, or heart block.

Choice B Reason: Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, infection, or metabolic acidosis. A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, hypothermia, or narcotic exposure.

Choice C Reason: Skin color jaundiced. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a diﬀerent condition called jaundice. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is normally excreted by the liver and kidneys. Jaundice can occur in newborns due to immature liver function, increased red blood cell breakdown, or blood group incompatibility. Jaundice does not aﬀect lung function or oxygenation.

Choice D Reason: Chest retractions. This is because chest retractions are a sign of respiratory distress that indicate increased work of breathing and reduced lung compliance. Chest retractions occur when the chest wall sinks in between the ribs or below the sternum during inhalation, creating a negative pressure that helps draw air into the lungs. RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.

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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be: Select one:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Assessment of a woman in labor reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, cervical eﬀacement of 30%, and contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes, lasting about 30 seconds. The nurse determines that this client is in: Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse explains to new parents that their newborn has developed respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following assessments that the nurse makes would support a diagnosis of RDS? Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

In a client's seventh month of pregnancy, she reports feeling "dizzy, like I'm going to pass out, when I lie down ﬂat on my back". The nurse explains that this is due to: Select one:

The nurse is performing a newborn physical assessment and is about to elicit the Moro reﬂex. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect to see? Select one:

The nurse's initial action when caring for an otherwise stable, full term infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to: Select one:

The client at 42 weeks' pregnancy is admited for induction of her labor. Which statement indicates that she understands the Reasons for the induction? Select one:

The Mother-Baby nurse is caring for a two hour old newborn who is 36 4/7 weeks gestation. The nurse assesses that the newborn is experiencing tremors (jiteriness). What nursing action has the highest priority? Select one:

In caring for the premature infant, the nurse must continually assess hydration status. Parameters to assess would include all of the following except: Select one:

An nurse is counseling a new mother about the immunologic properties of breast milk. The nurse emphasizes that breast milk is the main source of which specific immunoglobulin? Select one:

The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one: