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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one:

Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours.

Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts.

Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester.

It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours. This is because this response provides accurate and clear instructions on how to perform kick counts, which are a simple and non-invasive method of monitoring fetal activity and health. Kick counts can help detect changes in fetal movement paterns that may indicate fetal distress or hypoxia.

Choice B Reason: Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts. This is an insufficient answer that does not address the patient's question or demonstrate eﬀective communication skills. Providing writen information alone may not ensure the patient's understanding or compliance with kick counts.

Choice C Reason: Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester. This is an incorrect answer that contradicts the evidence and guidelines on kick counts. Kick counts are recommended for all pregnant women, especially in the third trimester, when fetal movements are more noticeable and consistent.

Choice D Reason: It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy. This is an incorrect answer that discourages the patient from performing kick counts and may give her a false sense of security. Kick counts are important for all pregnant women, regardless of their risk status, as they can help identify potential problems that may require further evaluation or intervention.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: "If I go too long overdue, the amniotic ﬂuid volume can become too low for my baby to be safe." This is a correct answer that indicates that the client understands one of the Reasons for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy.

Choice B Reason: "My baby took longer to grow, and now she's ready to be born." This is an incorrect answer that shows a misconception about fetal growth and development. Fetal growth does not depend on gestational age alone, but also on genetic, maternal, placental, and environmental factors. A post-term fetus does not necessarily grow faster or larger than a term fetus. In fact, some post-term fetuses may experience intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which means slower than expected growth for gestational age.

Choice C Reason: "I don't really need this induction, my baby will come whenever he wants to." This is an incorrect answer that reveals a lack of awareness or acceptance of the need for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy. Induction of labor is recommended for post-term pregnancies to prevent potential complications such as fetal distress, stillbirth, or maternal hemorrhage.

Choice D Reason: "Since I am so tired of being pregnant, I am being induced." This is an incorrect answer that implies that induction of labor is based on maternal preference or convenience rather than medical indication. Induction of labor should not be done without a valid Reason or informed consent, as it carries some risks such as failed induction, prolonged labor, infection, uterine rupture, or cesarean delivery.

A. Retained placental fragments. B. Cervical or vaginal lacerations. C. Uterine inversion. D. Uterine atony.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Retained placental fragments. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is less common than uterine atony. Retained placental fragments are pieces of placenta that remain atached to the uterine wall after delivery, which prevent uterine contraction and involution, and provide a source of bleeding and infection. Retained placental fragments can be caused by abnormal placentation (such as placenta accreta), manual removal of placenta, or incomplete separation of placenta.

Choice B Reason: Cervical or vaginal lacerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely to cause early postpartum hemorrhage than late postpartum hemorrhage. Cervical or vaginal lacerations are tears or cuts in the cervix or vagina that occur during delivery, which can cause bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. Cervical or vaginal lacerations can be caused by rapid or instrumental delivery, large or malpositioned fetus, or episiotomy.

Choice C Reason: Uterine inversion. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is rare and life-threatening. Uterine inversion is a condition where the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix and vagina after delivery, which can cause massive bleeding and shock. Uterine inversion can be caused by excessive traction on the umbilical cord, fundal pressure, or uterine relaxation.

Choice D Reason: Uterine atony. This is because uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, which leads to bleeding from the placental site. Uterine atony is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for about 75% of cases. Late postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders.

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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be: Select one:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client at 42 weeks' pregnancy is admited for induction of her labor. Which statement indicates that she understands the Reasons for the induction? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

When reviewing the causes of late postpartum hemorrhage, which of the following would the nurse identify as the most common cause? Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When the nurse is assessing a postpartum client approximately 6 hours after delivery, which finding would warrant further investigation? Select one:

A woman is being treated for preterm labor with magnesium sulfate. Which finding by the nurse indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity? Select one:

In caring for the premature infant, the nurse must continually assess hydration status. Parameters to assess would include all of the following except: Select one:

An adolescent patient at 20 weeks gestation states that it is important not to have a baby that weighs too much. She states this has been her rationale for limiting calories. Her weight has decreased from 110 pounds to 106 pounds. What would be the best nursing response? Select one:

The nurse is reading the results of non-stress test (NST) strips completed that day. Which of the following strips meets the criteria for a reactive NST? Select one:

After the birth of a newborn, the nursing intervention that most eﬀectively promotes parental atachment is: Select one:

At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?

The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one: