The patient has been started on warfarin (Coumadin) for deep vein thrombosis. The patient asks when the medication will break up the clots. The nurse's best response would be:
"This medication will not break down clots but will make it less likely that the clot will get larger."
"It will break down the clot within 8 to 12 hours of administration."
"It will take 7 to 10 days for the clot to break down."
"You will need to be on this medication for a long time before it will break down the clot."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "This medication will not break down clots but will make it less likely that the clot will get larger." Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. It does not directly break down existing clots but prevents the formation of new clots and the extension of existing ones. This response provides accurate information about the mechanism of action of warfarin.
B. "It will break down the clot within 8 to 12 hours of administration." This statement is incorrect. Warfarin does not have an immediate effect on existing clots. Its action is primarily preventive, reducing the risk of further clot formation and allowing the body's natural processes to gradually break down existing clots over time.
C. "It will take 7 to 10 days for the clot to break down." While the body's natural processes may start breaking down the clot within this timeframe, warfarin itself does not directly cause the dissolution of clots. This response is partially accurate in terms of the timeline for the body's natural clot resolution but does not specify that warfarin itself is not responsible for clot breakdown.
D. "You will need to be on this medication for a long time before it will break down the clot." This statement is misleading. Warfarin's role is to prevent the formation of new clots and further extension of existing ones rather than directly breaking down clots. Additionally, the duration of warfarin therapy is typically determined based on the individual's risk factors for clot formation, and it may not necessarily correlate with the time it takes for existing clots to resolve.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Platelets 74,000/mm: A platelet count of 74,000/mm³ is significantly lower than the normal range (typically 150,000 to 450,000/mm³). This could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious adverse effect of heparin therapy where the immune system forms antibodies against heparin bound to platelet factor 4, leading to a decrease in platelets and increased risk of thrombosis. This is a critical finding and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.
B. White blood cell count 8,000/mm³: This is within the normal range (typically 4,000 to 11,000/mm³) and does not indicate an immediate problem related to heparin therapy or pulmonary embolism management.
C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 55 seconds: While slightly elevated, this PTT is within the therapeutic range for a patient receiving IV heparin (typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value, or about 45 to 70 seconds). This indicates that the heparin is having the desired anticoagulant effect.
D. Hematocrit 45%: This is within the normal range for adults (typically 38-50% for men and 35-45% for women) and does not indicate an immediate concern related to heparin therapy or pulmonary embolism.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Trombin (Evithrom): Incorrect: Thrombin (also known as factor IIa) is not typically used as a hemostatic drug. It is involved in the final step of the coagulation cascade, converting fibrinogen to fibrin to form a stable clot. However, it is not administered directly as a medication.
B. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar): Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent commonly used to control bleeding. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of fibrin clots, thus promoting hemostasis. It is particularly useful in situations where excessive bleeding occurs due to impaired clot dissolution. However, tranexamic acid is generally considered more potent and has a longer-lasting effect, making it the preferred choice in many situations.
C. Aspirin: Incorrect: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation. While it can reduce the risk of clot formation, it is not primarily used for controlling postoperative bleeding.
D. Tranexamic acid (Cyklokapron): Correct: Tranexamic acid is another antifibrinolytic agent that helps prevent excessive bleeding. It works by blocking the breakdown of fibrin clots. Tranexamic acid is commonly used in surgical settings to manage bleeding during and after procedures.
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