The nurse plans to collect a 24 hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?
Urinate at a specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine during the next 24 hours.
Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours, for the next 24 hours.
For the next 24 hours, notify nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
Cleanse around the meatus, discard first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Urinate at a specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine during the next 24 hours: Discarding the first void ensures the collection begins with an empty bladder, and all urine afterward is included for accurate measurement.
B. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours, for the next 24 hours: This describes timed urine sampling, not a continuous 24-hour collection required for creatinine clearance.
C. For the next 24 hours, notify nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens: Routine creatinine clearance testing does not require catheterization unless the client is already catheterized.
D. Cleanse around the meatus, discard first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle: This describes a midstream or clean-catch technique, typically used for urine cultures, not 24-hour collections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Palpate the client's suprapubic area for distention: The symptoms suggest possible urinary retention, which could be a result of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) or another obstruction. Palpating the suprapubic area for distention is important to assess for urinary retention and determine if the bladder is full.
B. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity: Although a urinary tract infection can cause urinary symptoms, the client's presentation is more likely indicative of a physical obstruction such as BPH. A culture might be needed later if infection is suspected.
C. Instruct in effective techniques to cleanse the glans penis: Proper hygiene is important, especially in older adult men, but this is not the most relevant action for the symptoms described. The focus should be on assessing for possible urinary retention or obstruction.
D. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week: While a voiding diary may provide useful information for monitoring symptoms over time, the immediate priority is to assess for urinary retention and bladder distention.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. Pain scale: Pain is a key symptom of Herpes zoster (shingles), and the effectiveness of treatment is often measured by the relief of pain. The nurse should assess the pain level regularly using a pain scale to evaluate the effectiveness of pain management interventions.
B. Skin integrity: Herpes zoster causes a rash and blisters, and monitoring skin integrity is important to assess for signs of infection, healing, or any new areas of skin breakdown. The healing of the rash and blisters is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness.
C. Bowel sounds: Bowel sounds are not related to the treatment or condition of Herpes zoster. While important in other contexts, they are not a relevant assessment for evaluating the effectiveness of shingles treatment.
D. Functional ability: Functional ability, including the client’s ability to perform activities of daily living, can be impacted by the pain and discomfort associated with shingles. Assessing functional ability helps to gauge the overall impact of the condition and the effectiveness of treatment in improving quality of life.
E. Heart sounds: Heart sounds are not directly related to the treatment of Herpes zoster. This assessment is not necessary for evaluating the effectiveness of shingles treatment unless there are unrelated cardiovascular concerns.
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