The nurse notes that a patient has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?
Observe for edema around the ankles.
Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously.
Measure the patient’s capillary glucose level.
Auscultate the patient’s bowel sounds.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale for Choice A:
Observing for edema around the ankles is a relevant assessment, but it's not the most crucial one in this context. Edema can be a sign of fluid retention, which is a potential side effect of hydromorphone. However, it's not the most immediate or dangerous concern associated with prolonged hydromorphone use.
Rationale for Choice B:
Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously is a technique used to assess for pulse deficits, which can indicate heart rhythm irregularities. While hydromorphone can potentially cause cardiac effects, it's not the most common or primary concern with its use. Other assessments take priority.
Rationale for Choice C:
Measuring the patient's capillary glucose level is important for patients with diabetes or those at risk for hyperglycemia. However, there's no direct link between hydromorphone use and blood glucose levels. This assessment isn't the most relevant in this specific scenario.
Rationale for Choice D:
Auscultating the patient's bowel sounds is the most important assessment for a patient who has been receiving hydromorphone for four days. Here's why:
Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can significantly slow down gastrointestinal motility. This can lead to constipation, which, if severe, can progress to ileus (a complete lack of bowel movement).
Ileus is a serious complication that can cause abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and even bowel obstruction or perforation if left untreated.
Auscultating bowel sounds helps assess the patient's bowel activity and detect early signs of constipation or ileus. Normal bowel sounds are typically heard every 5-15 seconds. Decreased or absent bowel sounds can indicate decreased bowel activity.
Early identification of constipation or ileus allows for prompt intervention, such as increasing fluid and fiber intake, administering laxatives or stool softeners, and potentially discontinuing or adjusting the hydromorphone dosage. This can prevent the development of more serious complications.
Therefore, auscultating the patient's bowel sounds is the most important assessment for the nurse to complete in this case, as it directly addresses the most significant potential complication associated with prolonged hydromorphone use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Open-angle glaucoma is not characterized by an abnormally small angle.
The angle in open-angle glaucoma is open, but the drainage system is not working properly. Therefore, restoring a smaller angle would not be an effective treatment goal.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Eye drops used to treat open-angle glaucoma are not typically used for pain control.
While some individuals may experience mild discomfort associated with elevated eye pressure, pain is not a common symptom of open-angle glaucoma.
Additionally, eye drops used to treat glaucoma do not have anti-inflammatory properties to address swelling.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. While reducing excess eye pressure is an important initial goal of treatment, long-term management of open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing maintenance of normal eye pressure.
Simply reducing pressure temporarily is not sufficient to prevent vision loss.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. The primary goal of treatment for open-angle glaucoma is to maintain normal eye pressure over the long term. This is because elevated eye pressure can damage the optic nerve, leading to vision loss.
Eye drops are often used to lower eye pressure, and they typically need to be used for life to prevent vision loss.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
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