The nurse knows which of the following types of angina is most closely related with an impending myocardial infarction (MI)?
Unstable
Variant
Chronic stable
Nocturnal
The Correct Answer is A
A) Unstable:
Unstable angina is the type of angina most closely related to an impending myocardial infarction (MI). It is characterized by unpredictable chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, or that increases in severity or frequency. Unstable angina represents a medical emergency and can progress to an MI if not promptly treated. It occurs when there is increased myocardial oxygen demand and a partially occluded coronary artery, often due to a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque.
B) Variant (Prinzmetal's) angina:
Variant angina, also known as Prinzmetal's angina, is caused by a spasm of the coronary artery, which temporarily narrows or obstructs blood flow. Although it can be severe and may occur at rest, it is typically transient and is not directly related to the development of an MI. Variant angina usually responds to medications such as nitrates or calcium channel blockers, and while it can be dangerous, it is not the most likely type of angina associated with a myocardial infarction.
C) Chronic stable angina:
Chronic stable angina occurs with predictable patterns, typically with exertion or stress, and resolves with rest or nitroglycerin. It does not usually indicate an impending MI, as it is a chronic condition caused by atherosclerosis that limits the heart's blood supply under stress. While chronic stable angina increases the risk of MI over time, it is not directly associated with an imminent heart attack.
D) Nocturnal angina:
Nocturnal angina refers to chest pain that occurs during the night or early morning hours, often during sleep. It may be associated with sleep apnea, GERD, or increased sympathetic tone during sleep. This type of angina is less commonly linked to an impending MI compared to unstable angina, although it should still be evaluated for any underlying cardiovascular issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Reduce the patient's anxiety:
While reducing anxiety is an important aspect of patient care, particularly in emergency situations, it is not the priority when life-threatening conditions may be present. Anxiety reduction can be addressed after ensuring that the patient’s more critical physiological needs (such as adequate oxygenation and circulation) are met.
B) Assure adequate circulating volume:
Maintaining adequate circulating volume is important, especially in trauma cases where blood loss is a concern. However, adequate oxygenation takes precedence over circulating volume in this scenario because without proper oxygenation, the patient’s vital organs and tissues may suffer from hypoxia, leading to further complications.
C) Decrease the patient's chest pain:
Chest pain following a motor vehicle accident (MVA) can be a symptom of serious injuries, such as rib fractures, pneumothorax, or even a cardiac contusion. While relieving pain is important for comfort and overall well-being, the priority in the immediate post-trauma phase is to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate oxygen.
D) Maintain adequate oxygenation:
The most critical concern after trauma, especially in a case involving chest impact, is ensuring that the patient is adequately oxygenated. Chest trauma can cause injuries to the lungs or pleural space (e.g., pneumothorax, hemothorax), leading to compromised oxygen exchange. The priority is to assess and maintain the patient's airway, breathing, and oxygenation first.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect:
The decrease in the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL suggests that the cancer is responding to the current treatment, not that the treatment plan needs to be changed. A drop in CEA levels typically indicates a positive response to treatment, such as chemotherapy, in reducing the number or size of cancer cells.
B) Cancer treatment is having the desired effect on killing cancer cells:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker that is often elevated in individuals with certain cancers, particularly colorectal cancer. A decrease in CEA levels, as noted in this case (from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL), usually signifies that the treatment is successfully targeting the cancer and reducing the tumor burden. This drop suggests that the chemotherapy is effectively killing cancer cells and reducing the size or activity of the tumor.
C) Client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome:
Tumor lysis syndrome typically occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their intracellular contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to metabolic disturbances like hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and renal failure. It is more common in aggressive hematologic cancers, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and typically presents with a rapid rise in tumor marker levels, not a decrease.
D) Cancer has increased size and metastatic sites:
An increase in tumor size or the development of metastatic sites would typically result in an increase in CEA levels, not a decrease. Since CEA levels have dropped, it is more likely that the cancer is shrinking or responding to the current treatment. This finding is more indicative of a positive response rather than disease progression.
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