The nurse knows the rationale for combination chemotherapy is to:
limit episodes of anticipatory and delayed emesis
lessen the client's risk of developing neutropenia
decrease time intervals between remission
broaden range of cell kill while minimizing toxicities to the client
The Correct Answer is D
A. While limiting emesis is important in cancer treatment, combination chemotherapy primarily focuses on improving efficacy and minimizing toxicities, not specifically targeting nausea and vomiting episodes.
B. Combination chemotherapy can actually increase the risk of neutropenia due to the cumulative effects of multiple agents, as each may independently lower white blood cell counts.
C. Decreasing time intervals between remission is not a primary goal of combination chemotherapy; rather, it aims to achieve better overall treatment outcomes.
D. The main rationale for using combination chemotherapy is to broaden the range of cancer cell kill through different mechanisms of action while minimizing the side effects associated with higher doses of a single agent. This approach can improve treatment efficacy and reduce the likelihood of resistance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The absence of bowel sounds shortly after surgery is a common finding and does not necessarily indicate a complication at this time; it is expected during the initial postoperative period.
B. An SPO2 of 90% while the client is asleep is concerning, but it does not take precedence over signs of possible surgical complications that could require immediate intervention.
C. Increasing abdominal distention is a critical sign that could indicate serious complications such as an anastomotic leak, bowel obstruction, or intra-abdominal bleeding, and it requires immediate notification of the surgeon for further evaluation and potential intervention.
D. A small amount of green-tinged fluid from the nasogastric tube is typical postoperatively and does not necessitate immediate notification to the surgeon unless the volume is excessive or other concerning signs are present.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Calling a rapid response may be necessary if the client's condition deteriorates, but it is not the immediate priority in this scenario where the client is still able to be aroused.
B. Administering naloxone is appropriate if there is suspicion of opioid overdose; however, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation first with non-invasive measures.
C. Checking the temperature and applying warmed blankets may be important, but the immediate concern is the low oxygen saturation.
D. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths is the most appropriate immediate action to improve oxygen saturation levels and enhance ventilation, as the client is in a post-anesthesia state where respiratory depression can occur.
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