The nurse determines through neurologic testing that a patient has sensory and motor impairment of bilateral lower extremities. The most important reason to assess for this in the client is to:
contribute to the medical diagnosis of the client.
provide a baseline assessment against which to evaluate changes in function.
plan care to protect the client from falls/injury.
anticipate other neurologic deficits that may arise.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Contributing to the medical diagnosis is a secondary goal for nursing care. The nurse's primary role is to ensure patient safety and prevent complications such as falls, which are more likely in patients with sensory and motor impairments.
B. While establishing a baseline for future comparison is important, it is not the most immediate concern. The nurse's priority is preventing falls and injury related to the impairment.
C. The priority in this case is to protect the client from falls or injury, as impaired motor and sensory function in the lower extremities increases the risk for accidents. Preventing injury will guide the development of the care plan, such as implementing fall precautions.
D. Anticipating other neurologic deficits is valuable but not the most urgent concern compared to protecting the client from the immediate risk of falls.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While limiting emesis is important in cancer treatment, combination chemotherapy primarily focuses on improving efficacy and minimizing toxicities, not specifically targeting nausea and vomiting episodes.
B. Combination chemotherapy can actually increase the risk of neutropenia due to the cumulative effects of multiple agents, as each may independently lower white blood cell counts.
C. Decreasing time intervals between remission is not a primary goal of combination chemotherapy; rather, it aims to achieve better overall treatment outcomes.
D. The main rationale for using combination chemotherapy is to broaden the range of cancer cell kill through different mechanisms of action while minimizing the side effects associated with higher doses of a single agent. This approach can improve treatment efficacy and reduce the likelihood of resistance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, including trigeminal neuralgia. It works by stabilizing nerve activity and is appropriate for this condition.
B. Carbamazepine is considered the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia as it decreases nerve impulses, which helps reduce pain. It is a commonly prescribed medication for this condition.
C. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and can be used in combination with anticonvulsants to treat trigeminal neuralgia by reducing muscle spasms associated with nerve irritation.
D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that treats general pain but is not typically effective for the specific type of neuropathic pain experienced in trigeminal neuralgia. Opioids do not address the underlying nerve activity and are not recommended for long-term management of this condition.
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