The nurse is preparing to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a client with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this drug classification?

Neutralizes hydrochloric acid (HCI) in the stomach.

Inhibits action of acetylcholine by blocking parasympathetic nerve endings.

Destroys microorganisms causing stomach inflammation.

Decreases the amount of HCI secretion by the parietal cells in the stomach.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Histamine 2-receptor antagonists do not directly neutralize hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach. Instead, they reduce acid secretion by blocking the histamine 2 receptors on parietal cells, thereby decreasing the production of gastric acid.

B. This describes the mechanism of action of anticholinergic medications, not histamine 2- receptor antagonists.

C. Histamine 2-receptor antagonists do not have antimicrobial properties and are not used to destroy microorganisms causing stomach inflammation. They primarily target acid secretion.

D. This is the correct purpose of histamine 2-receptor antagonists. They work by blocking the action of histamine on parietal cells in the stomach, leading to a reduction in the secretion of hydrochloric acid. This helps in the management of peptic ulcer disease and other conditions related to excessive gastric acid secretion.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack. This schedule does not ensure that the medication is administered at equally spaced intervals throughout the day, as required for 4 divided doses.
B. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400. This schedule is not practical or feasible, as it includes a dose in the middle of the night.
C. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000. This schedule provides equally divided doses at intervals that are practical and coincide with the client's waking hours.
D. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours. While this option mentions administering doses during waking hours, it does not specify specific times for administration, unlike option C.

A. Dosage in safe range B. Blood urea nitrogen 17 mg/dl. (6.07 mmol/L) C. Potassium 4.4 mEq/L (4.4 mmol/L) D. No known allergies E. Peripheral IV in large vein F. Used for prophylaxis

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Dosage in safe range: Ensures that the dosage of vancomycin falls within the acceptable range, minimizing the risk of toxicity.
B. Blood urea nitrogen 17 mg/dl (6.07 mmol/L): Normal BUN levels indicate adequate renal function, which is important for the excretion of vancomycin.
C. Potassium 4.4 mEq/L (4.4 mmol/L): While potassium levels are important for overall health, they are not directly related to the administration of vancomycin.
D. No known allergies: Absence of allergies reduces the risk of adverse reactions to the medication.
E. Peripheral IV in large vein: A peripheral IV in a large vein allows for the administration of vancomycin without complications such as phlebitis or infiltration.
F. While vancomycin is being used for prophylaxis against endocarditis in this case, this alone does not indicate the safety of administering the antibiotic. Other factors such as renal function and absence of allergies are more directly related to the safety of vancomycin administration.

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The nurse is preparing to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a client with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this drug classification?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An intravenous (IV) antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. Which schedule is best for administering this prescription?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Exhibits Select 4 findings that would indicate to the nurse that the administration of the vancomycin antibiotic would be safe to administer.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

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