The nurse is preparing to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a client with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this drug classification?

Neutralizes hydrochloric acid (HCI) in the stomach.

Inhibits action of acetylcholine by blocking parasympathetic nerve endings.

Destroys microorganisms causing stomach inflammation.

Decreases the amount of HCI secretion by the parietal cells in the stomach.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Histamine 2-receptor antagonists do not directly neutralize hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach. Instead, they reduce acid secretion by blocking the histamine 2 receptors on parietal cells, thereby decreasing the production of gastric acid.

B. This describes the mechanism of action of anticholinergic medications, not histamine 2- receptor antagonists.

C. Histamine 2-receptor antagonists do not have antimicrobial properties and are not used to destroy microorganisms causing stomach inflammation. They primarily target acid secretion.

D. This is the correct purpose of histamine 2-receptor antagonists. They work by blocking the action of histamine on parietal cells in the stomach, leading to a reduction in the secretion of hydrochloric acid. This helps in the management of peptic ulcer disease and other conditions related to excessive gastric acid secretion.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Administer aspirin to prevent further clot formation and platelet clumping. While aspirin may be indicated in the treatment of ischemic stroke, it is not the immediate priority. The client requires further assessment and diagnostic evaluation before initiating specific treatments.
B. Raise the head of the bed to 30 degrees keeping head and neck in neutral alignment.
Positioning the client is important for maintaining airway patency, but it is not the priority when assessing and managing acute stroke. Immediate interventions to address potential thrombolytic therapy take precedence.
C. Begin continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction. Continuous observation is important for monitoring the client's neurological status, but it is not the first action to take. The client requires urgent diagnostic imaging to confirm the diagnosis and
determine eligibility for thrombolytic therapy.

D. Start two large bore IV catheters and review inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy. This is the priority action. IV access is crucial for administering medications and fluids, and reviewing the inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy is essential to determine if the client meets the
criteria for this time-sensitive intervention.

A. Monitor blood glucose level. B. Maintain strict intake and output. C. Keep head of bed raised 45 degrees. D. Assess warmth of extremities.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale for A: Monitoring blood glucose levels is important in septic patients as hyperglycemia can occur due to stress response, and insulin resistance may develop. However, it is not the most critical intervention for immediate stabilization.
Rationale for B: Maintaining strict intake and output is crucial for a patient in septic shock because fluid balance is a key component in managing shock. Accurate measurement of intake and output ensures appropriate fluid resuscitation, which is vital for maintaining blood pressure and organ perfusion.
Rationale for C: Keeping the head of the bed raised 45 degrees can help prevent aspiration, which is particularly important in patients who are at risk of gastrointestinal bleeding or those who are sedated. However, this is not the primary intervention for septic shock management.
Rationale for D: Assessing the warmth of extremities can provide information about peripheral circulation and may indicate the effectiveness of cardiac output. Nevertheless, it is not the most immediate concern in the management of septic shock.

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The nurse is preparing to administer a histamine 2-receptor antagonist to a client with peptic ulcer disease. What is the primary purpose of this drug classification?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client admitted to the hospital with a suspected ruptured diverticulum develops signs and symptoms of septic shock. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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