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Exhibits

Which may have caused the change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score between 2000 and 2400? Select all that apply.

The client may be developing sepsis.

The client may be dehydrated.

The client may have increasing symptoms of head injury.

The client may have been sleeping.

The client may be improving clinically.

The client may require more morphine

The client may be experiencing sedative effects of morphine.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : C,D,G

A. The client may be developing sepsis.

Sepsis typically presents with symptoms such as fever, increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and altered blood pressure. There is no indication of these signs in the provided data,
making sepsis an unlikely cause for the change in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score.

B. The client may be dehydrated.

Dehydration can affect cognitive function, but there is no evidence suggesting dehydration in this scenario (e.g., normal heart rate, blood pressure, and no noted intake/output imbalance).
C. The client may have increasing symptoms of head injury.

A decrease in GCS score can indicate worsening head injury symptoms, such as increased intracranial pressure or bleeding.
D. The client may have been sleeping.

Sleeping can temporarily affect the GCS score, particularly the eye-opening component.

E. The client may be improving clinically.

Improvement clinically would likely result in a stable or improved GCS score, not a decrease.

F. The client may require more morphine.

Needing more morphine would typically be due to increased pain, but this should not directly affect the GCS score unless severe pain is causing altered consciousness, which is not indicated here.
G. The client may be experiencing sedative effects of morphine.

Morphine, especially given intravenously, can cause sedation, which could lower the GCS score.

H. The client may need food.

Needing food would not typically cause an immediate change in GCS score unless associated with severe hypoglycemia, which is not indicated by the provided data.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A: Using a different sphygmomanometer would not address the underlying cause of the spasms, which is likely not related to the equipment itself.
B: Taking the blood pressure in the other arm may avoid the spasms temporarily, but it does not address the potential underlying medical issue causing the spasms.
C: Administering an antianxiety medication is not indicated as the spasms are not necessarily related to anxiety; they could be a sign of a physiological condition.
D: Reviewing the client's serum calcium level is the most appropriate action. The spasms described are indicative of Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can cause increased neuromuscular excitability, leading to spasms. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the spasms, which in this case could be a calcium deficiency.

A. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens. B. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours. C. Urinate at a specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine during the next 24 hours. D. Cleanse and meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This instruction is incorrect because it suggests collecting catheterized specimens, which is not necessary for a creatinine clearance test. Catheterization may increase the risk of contamination and is not typically performed for this test.
B. This instruction is incorrect because it does not involve the collection of a complete 24-hour urine specimen. Collecting specimens every 6 hours would not provide an accurate measurement of creatinine clearance over a 24-hour period.
C. This instruction is correct. For a 24-hour urine collection, the client should urinate at a specified time to start the collection period, discard this urine, and then collect all subsequent urine produced over the next 24 hours. This ensures that the entire 24-hour period is captured for analysis.
D. This instruction is incorrect because it does not involve the collection of all urine produced over a 24-hour period. Additionally, discarding the first portion of voiding is not necessary for a creatinine clearance test and may lead to inaccurate results.

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Exhibits Which may have caused the change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score between 2000 and 2400? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client's right hand and fingers spasm when taking the blood pressure using the same arm. After confirming the presence of the spasms, which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the CLIENT?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A client admitted to the hospital with a suspected ruptured diverticulum develops signs and symptoms of septic shock. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

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The nurse is teaching a primigravida about preeclampsia. What finding(s) are indicators of preeclampsia and should be reported to the healthcare provider? Select all that apply.

Exhibits

Which may have caused the change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score between 2000 and 2400? Select all that apply.