The nurse is preparing a bladder irrigation for an adult client who has a long-term indwelling urinary catheter. The urine is cloudy with fibrin clots and sediment. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Power flush with 60 mL to remove mucous obstructions.

Slowly irrigate catheter with saline using an infusion pump.

Clamp the catheter for 30 minutes prior to irrigating.

Use a sterile syringe to irrigate with 20 mL normal saline.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Power flushing with 60 mL of solution can create excessive pressure in the bladder, increasing the risk of trauma or forcing bacteria into the urinary tract. Gentle irrigation is preferred to safely remove clots and sediment without causing injury.

B. Using an infusion pump to slowly irrigate the catheter may not allow proper control of pressure and volume, which can damage the bladder mucosa. Manual irrigation allows the nurse to assess resistance and stop if obstruction or discomfort occurs.

C. Clamping the catheter for 30 minutes before irrigation can increase bladder pressure and cause discomfort or potential reflux of urine into the kidneys. Routine pre-irrigation clamping is not recommended unless specifically ordered for retention management.

D. Using a sterile syringe with 20 mL of normal saline allows controlled, gentle irrigation to remove clots and sediment. Sterile technique reduces the risk of introducing pathogens, and the small volume minimizes bladder trauma while effectively clearing the catheter.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

Acute pain: The client’s symptoms, such as moaning, facial grimacing, and muscle spasms in the right leg, suggest they are experiencing acute pain. This condition is consistent with the sudden onset of pain and physical reactions.
Request prescription for pain medication: This action addresses the client’s immediate pain needs, helping to alleviate discomfort and improve overall well-being.
Request antispasmodic medication: The muscle spasms observed indicate that an antispasmodic may help reduce the muscle tension and associated pain, providing relief from the spasms.
Response to pain medications: Monitoring the client's response to the prescribed pain medication will help determine the effectiveness of the intervention and whether further adjustments are needed.
Severity of muscle spasms: Assessing the severity of muscle spasms will help evaluate the impact of the antispasmodic treatment and provide insight into the client’s progress in managing the pain.

A. Morphine 2.0 mg IV every four hours for severe pain. B. Morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for severe pain. C. IV MS 2 mg every 4 hr as needed for severe pain. D. IV MS 2.0 mg every 4 hours PRN for severe pain.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The use of "2.0 mg" is incorrect because trailing zeros can lead to dosage errors. The correct documentation should avoid trailing zeros to prevent misinterpretation.
B. "Morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for severe pain" is the correct format. It uses the full name of the drug, avoids abbreviations that could be confused, and follows best practices for documenting as-needed (PRN) medications.
C. Using "MS" instead of "morphine" is not recommended because "MS" can be confused with magnesium sulfate or other medications. The full drug name should always be used.
D. Similar to option A, the use of "2.0 mg" includes a trailing zero, which should be avoided to reduce the risk of errors in medication administration.

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The nurse is preparing a bladder irrigation for an adult client who has a long-term indwelling urinary catheter. The urine is cloudy with fibrin clots and sediment. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

The healthcare provider gives a verbal prescription for 2 mg of intravenous morphine to be given to a client every 4 hours as needed for severe pain. How should the nurse document the prescription?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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