The nurse is performing a medication history on a patient who reports taking lorazepam (Ativan) for the past 6 months to treat an anxiety disorder. The patient states that the medication is not working as well as previously. The nurse will
suspect worsening of the anxiety disorder.
contact the provider to discuss changing to another benzodiazepine.
understand that the patient has developed tolerance to this drug.
notify the provider and discuss increasing the dose of lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Suspect worsening of the anxiety disorder:
While it is possible that the patient's anxiety disorder is worsening, the more likely explanation for the reduced effectiveness of lorazepam is the development of drug tolerance. Over time, patients may require higher doses of a medication to achieve the same therapeutic effect, especially with medications like lorazepam that are used chronically.
B) Contact the provider to discuss changing to another benzodiazepine:
Changing to another benzodiazepine might be an option, but it is more likely that tolerance to lorazepam is the cause of the reduced effect, not an issue with the specific drug. Tolerance is common with long-term use of benzodiazepines, and switching drugs may not address the underlying issue. The first step would be to assess the current medication regimen and discuss possible adjustments with the provider.
C) Understand that the patient has developed tolerance to this drug:
Tolerance occurs when the body becomes accustomed to the effects of a medication over time, requiring higher doses to achieve the same therapeutic effect. This is a common phenomenon with benzodiazepines like lorazepam, which are often used for long periods to manage anxiety. As the patient has been taking lorazepam for six months, this reduced effectiveness is likely due to the development of tolerance, rather than a worsening of the anxiety disorder.
D) Notify the provider and discuss increasing the dose of lorazepam:
While increasing the dose of lorazepam could temporarily relieve symptoms, it is not the most appropriate first step. The nurse should first consider the possibility of tolerance and discuss this with the provider before increasing the dose. Long-term increases in benzodiazepine dosages can increase the risk of side effects, dependency, and withdrawal symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Increased calcium: Sympathetic activation typically does not cause a direct increase in calcium levels. Calcium levels are more influenced by factors like parathyroid hormone (PTH) and vitamin D, or conditions such as bone disease or renal issues. Although some stress responses can lead to changes in calcium metabolism, an increase in calcium is not a typical response to sympathetic activation.
B) Decreased sodium: While sodium imbalances can occur in various conditions, the sympathetic nervous system does not directly cause a decrease in sodium. The body's handling of sodium is more influenced by factors like kidney function and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Stress-related changes in sodium levels are less likely to cause a significant decrease in sodium, making this an unlikely focus in monitoring.
C) Decreased potassium: During stress, the body releases catecholamines (like epinephrine) as part of the sympathetic nervous response, which stimulates the movement of potassium into cells. This can result in a transient decrease in serum potassium levels (hypokalemia). Monitoring for decreased potassium is important, as low potassium can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness, which are particularly concerning after surgery or trauma.
D) Increased chloride: Chloride is typically maintained in balance with sodium, and while it may shift in certain conditions, sympathetic activation does not directly lead to increased chloride levels. Most chloride imbalances are secondary to changes in sodium, acid-base disturbances, or kidney function. Therefore, an increase in chloride is less likely in this scenario.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Norepinephrine: Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. It is not involved in terminating the stimulation caused by acetylcholine. Norepinephrine acts on adrenergic receptors, whereas acetylcholine primarily acts on cholinergic receptors.
B) Decarboxylase: Decarboxylase is an enzyme that plays a role in the synthesis of certain neurotransmitters, including dopamine, but it does not have a role in terminating the action of acetylcholine at the effector cell. It is unrelated to the termination of acetylcholine signaling.
C) Catecholamine: Catecholamines (such as dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine) are a group of neurotransmitters involved in the sympathetic nervous system. While they play a role in synaptic transmission, they are not responsible for breaking down acetylcholine or terminating its effects. Their primary function is in adrenergic signaling.
D) Acetylcholinesterase: Acetylcholinesterase is the correct enzyme. It is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) in the synaptic cleft after it has stimulated the effector cell. By hydrolyzing acetylcholine into acetate and choline, acetylcholinesterase effectively terminates the signal and allows the effector cell's membrane to repolarize. This action prevents continuous stimulation and ensures proper function of the cholinergic system.
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