The nurse is caring for client who has had partial removal the parathyroid gland. The client reports numbness and tingling of the hands and fingers. Which lab value would the nurse expect to see?
Chloride 112
Calcium 7.5
Potassium 4.0
Calcium 12.1
The Correct Answer is B
A) Chloride 112:
Chloride levels are typically not directly associated with numbness or tingling of the hands and fingers. Elevated chloride levels (greater than 108 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic acidosis, but they would not directly explain the symptoms seen in this client following parathyroidectomy. Therefore, this value is unlikely to be relevant in this scenario.
B) Calcium 7.5:
After the partial removal of the parathyroid glands, the client may experience hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, due to the reduced production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. When the parathyroid glands are removed or damaged, there may be insufficient PTH to maintain normal calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include numbness and tingling, especially in the hands and fingers. A calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is below the normal range (8.5–10.5 mg/dL), indicating hypocalcemia, which is consistent with the patient's symptoms.
C) Potassium 4.0:
A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically cause numbness or tingling. Although potassium imbalances can cause neuromuscular symptoms, they would not be the most likely cause of the symptoms in this case, especially in relation to parathyroidectomy.
D) Calcium 12.1:
A calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is elevated and would suggest hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia can cause symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and weakness, but it does not typically cause numbness and tingling in the hands and fingers. Elevated calcium levels are more likely to occur in conditions such as hyperparathyroidism or malignancy, not typically following parathyroid gland removal. Therefore, this is not the expected lab result in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Keep the head of the client’s bed elevated to 45 degrees:
Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees can actually increase the risk of pressure injuries, particularly in clients who are already at risk. This position can cause shearing forces and increase pressure on areas such as the sacrum, heels, and hips, making it more likely for pressure ulcers to develop.
B) Provide the client with a high-calorie diet:
A high-calorie diet is important for clients at risk of pressure injuries because adequate nutrition supports skin integrity and wound healing. Clients at risk for pressure injuries often have compromised nutritional status, and providing sufficient calories, protein, and other nutrients helps improve tissue regeneration and resilience. A high-calorie, high-protein diet helps prevent further breakdown of the skin and supports the healing process for any existing wounds.
C) Massage the client’s bony prominences:
Massaging bony prominences, such as the heels, elbows, and sacrum, is not recommended because it can cause tissue damage and increase the risk of pressure injury. Instead, the focus should be on minimizing pressure on these areas and using appropriate methods to redistribute pressure, such as repositioning the client or using pressure-relieving devices.
D) Reposition the client every 4 hours:
Repositioning the client every 4 hours may not be frequent enough for those at high risk for pressure injuries. For individuals who are immobile or at high risk, repositioning should typically occur at least every 2 hours to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas of the body.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Memory loss:
Zolpidem, a sedative-hypnotic commonly prescribed for insomnia, can cause memory problems, including short-term memory loss. This is a known adverse effect of zolpidem, especially when taken in higher doses or when a person is not able to get a full night’s sleep after taking the medication. This side effect can manifest as amnesia or difficulty recalling events that occurred while under the influence of the medication.
B) Dry mouth:
While dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including some antihistamines and antidepressants, it is not a typical or major adverse effect associated with zolpidem. Though less common, it may occur in some individuals, but it is not considered a primary or significant adverse effect of this drug.
C) Hypertension:
Zolpidem does not typically cause hypertension. In fact, it is more likely to cause a calming effect that may lead to a decrease in blood pressure, particularly in individuals who experience sedation. It is important for the nurse to monitor for any unusual changes in vital signs, but hypertension is not a known adverse effect of zolpidem.
D) Urinary retention:
Urinary retention is more commonly associated with medications that affect the autonomic nervous system, such as antihistamines, anticholinergics, or certain opioids. Zolpidem is not typically associated with urinary retention. While any sedative could potentially cause mild disruptions in normal bladder function due to its sedative properties, urinary retention is not a frequent or well-known side effect of zolpidem.
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