The nurse is caring for client who has had partial removal the parathyroid gland. The client reports numbness and tingling of the hands and fingers. Which lab value would the nurse expect to see?
Chloride 112
Calcium 7.5
Potassium 4.0
Calcium 12.1
The Correct Answer is B
A) Chloride 112:
Chloride levels are typically not directly associated with numbness or tingling of the hands and fingers. Elevated chloride levels (greater than 108 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic acidosis, but they would not directly explain the symptoms seen in this client following parathyroidectomy. Therefore, this value is unlikely to be relevant in this scenario.
B) Calcium 7.5:
After the partial removal of the parathyroid glands, the client may experience hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, due to the reduced production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. When the parathyroid glands are removed or damaged, there may be insufficient PTH to maintain normal calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include numbness and tingling, especially in the hands and fingers. A calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is below the normal range (8.5–10.5 mg/dL), indicating hypocalcemia, which is consistent with the patient's symptoms.
C) Potassium 4.0:
A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically cause numbness or tingling. Although potassium imbalances can cause neuromuscular symptoms, they would not be the most likely cause of the symptoms in this case, especially in relation to parathyroidectomy.
D) Calcium 12.1:
A calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is elevated and would suggest hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia can cause symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and weakness, but it does not typically cause numbness and tingling in the hands and fingers. Elevated calcium levels are more likely to occur in conditions such as hyperparathyroidism or malignancy, not typically following parathyroid gland removal. Therefore, this is not the expected lab result in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Apply pressure to the client’s nasolacrimal duct after instillation:
Applying gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct after administering an ophthalmic medication is a recommended practice. This action prevents the medication from draining into the nasopharynx, reducing the risk of systemic absorption and minimizing potential side effects. It also helps ensure that the medication stays localized in the eye for maximum therapeutic effect. This technique is especially important for medications like eye drops that could otherwise be absorbed systemically, such as those for glaucoma treatment.
B) Clean the client's eye from the outer canthus to the inner canthus before instillation:
The correct procedure for cleaning the eye prior to instilling ophthalmic medication is to clean from the inner canthus (near the nose) to the outer canthus (toward the temple). This technique avoids dragging debris from the outer eye toward the sensitive inner corner and helps prevent introducing contaminants into the eye. Cleaning from outer to inner canthus could potentially push debris toward the tear ducts and further irritate the eye.
C) Ask the client to tightly squeeze their eyes shut after the instillation:
Asking the client to tightly squeeze their eyes shut after instillation is not recommended. Squeezing the eyes shut can increase intraocular pressure and may actually force the medication out of the eye, reducing its effectiveness. Instead, the client should be encouraged to gently close their eyes and avoid blinking excessively. This allows the medication to stay in contact with the eye for a longer period.
D) Instill the ophthalmic medication directly on the client's cornea:
Instilling ophthalmic medication directly on the cornea is not recommended. The correct technique is to instill the medication into the conjunctival sac, which is the space between the lower eyelid and the eyeball. Instilling the medication directly onto the cornea could lead to irritation, discomfort, or damage to the sensitive corneal surface, and it would not allow the medication to be absorbed as intended.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) "I will wear earphones during this test":
This statement is incorrect. The Rinne test is a hearing test used to compare air conduction to bone conduction of sound. It is performed by placing a vibrating tuning fork near the ear canal (for air conduction) and then on the mastoid bone behind the ear (for bone conduction). Earphones are not used in this test.
B) "A small probe is placed inside my ear":
This statement is incorrect. A probe is typically used for other types of hearing tests, such as tympanometry or an auditory brainstem response (ABR) test, not the Rinne test. The Rinne test involves using a tuning fork, not a probe, and the tuning fork is placed near the ear canal (for air conduction) and on the mastoid bone (for bone conduction).
C) "A tuning fork is placed on my head":
This statement is correct. In the Rinne test, the tuning fork is initially struck to produce sound and then placed on the mastoid bone (behind the ear) to test bone conduction. Afterward, the vibrating tuning fork is moved to the front of the ear canal to test air conduction. The purpose of the test is to compare these two types of conduction. If air conduction is better than bone conduction, this suggests normal hearing, while equal or better bone conduction can indicate conductive hearing loss.
D) "Small electrodes are placed on my scalp":
This statement is incorrect. Electrodes on the scalp are typically used in an electroencephalogram (EEG) or other neurodiagnostic tests, not the Rinne test. The Rinne test focuses on hearing and does not require the use of electrodes. It uses a tuning fork to assess how well sound travels through air and bone.
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