The nurse is caring for client who has had partial removal the parathyroid gland. The client reports numbness and tingling of the hands and fingers. Which lab value would the nurse expect to see?
Chloride 112
Calcium 7.5
Potassium 4.0
Calcium 12.1
The Correct Answer is B
A) Chloride 112:
Chloride levels are typically not directly associated with numbness or tingling of the hands and fingers. Elevated chloride levels (greater than 108 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic acidosis, but they would not directly explain the symptoms seen in this client following parathyroidectomy. Therefore, this value is unlikely to be relevant in this scenario.
B) Calcium 7.5:
After the partial removal of the parathyroid glands, the client may experience hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, due to the reduced production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. When the parathyroid glands are removed or damaged, there may be insufficient PTH to maintain normal calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include numbness and tingling, especially in the hands and fingers. A calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is below the normal range (8.5–10.5 mg/dL), indicating hypocalcemia, which is consistent with the patient's symptoms.
C) Potassium 4.0:
A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically cause numbness or tingling. Although potassium imbalances can cause neuromuscular symptoms, they would not be the most likely cause of the symptoms in this case, especially in relation to parathyroidectomy.
D) Calcium 12.1:
A calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is elevated and would suggest hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia can cause symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and weakness, but it does not typically cause numbness and tingling in the hands and fingers. Elevated calcium levels are more likely to occur in conditions such as hyperparathyroidism or malignancy, not typically following parathyroid gland removal. Therefore, this is not the expected lab result in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) "Break needles on syringes before disposal":
Breaking needles before disposal is not a safe practice because it increases the risk of injury to staff during disposal. Needles should be disposed of intact in designated sharps containers to prevent injury. Tampering with used needles or syringes could expose staff to bloodborne pathogens.
B) "Use two hands to recap a needle after administering a medication":
The use of two hands to recap a needle is a high-risk behavior and should be avoided. The proper procedure is to never recap a needle after use. If recapping is absolutely necessary, a one-handed technique using the cap or a mechanical device should be employed to reduce the risk of needlestick injuries. The best practice is to dispose of the needle immediately in a sharps container.
C) "Dispose of used razors in wastebaskets":
Used razors should never be disposed of in wastebaskets, as this poses a significant risk of injury to waste management personnel. Razors, like needles and other sharp objects, should be placed in a designated sharps container. These containers are puncture-resistant and provide a safe environment for the disposal of used sharp items.
D) "Replace sharps containers when they are 3/4 full":
Sharps containers should be replaced when they are 3/4 full to prevent overfilling, which increases the risk of needlestick injuries. Overfilled containers can also make it difficult to dispose of new sharps safely. It is essential to follow institutional guidelines for the proper disposal of sharps and ensure that containers are replaced in a timely manner to maintain a safe environment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) The client reports dizziness when ambulating to the bathroom:
Dizziness upon ambulation is a key indicator that the client may be experiencing orthostatic hypotension, a potential side effect of antihypertensive medications. If the client is already experiencing dizziness, this could be exacerbated by administering the medication, which may cause a further drop in blood pressure. It is crucial for the nurse to further assess the client’s blood pressure (particularly orthostatic blood pressure readings) and overall clinical status before administering the medication to prevent potential falls, injury, or worsening hypotension.
B) The client reports having trouble sleeping the previous night:
While difficulty sleeping could be a concern, it is not directly related to the administration of an antihypertensive medication unless the client reports other symptoms, such as palpitations, chest pain, or anxiety, which may indicate an underlying issue. It is not a priority to delay or further assess medication administration based solely on sleep disturbances unless other significant factors are present.
C) The client ate 60% of their breakfast:
Eating 60% of the meal is not typically a reason to withhold or delay antihypertensive medication unless the client is showing signs of severe nausea, vomiting, or gastrointestinal distress. Many antihypertensive medications can be taken with food to reduce gastric irritation, and this percentage of food intake does not pose an immediate concern.
D) The client has a urine output of 400 mL for the past 8 hours:
Urine output of 400 mL over 8 hours is within the normal range (approximately 50–60 mL/hr), suggesting adequate renal function and fluid balance. While a decrease in urine output can be concerning, there is no immediate indication that this level of output would interfere with the administration of an antihypertensive medication.
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