The nurse is caring for a patient with migraine headaches. Which assessment best indicates that suma agonist, is exerting the desired therapeutic effect?
The patient experiences decreased frequency of migraine headaches.
The patient does not experience any more migraine headaches.
The patient reports the termination of the migraine headache after the drug is administered.
The patient experiences increased nausea associated with the migraine headache.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: While a decreased frequency of migraine headaches is a positive outcome, it does not directly indicate the immediate therapeutic effect of a sumatriptan (a serotonin receptor agonist). It may suggest a preventive effect over time.
Choice B rationale: Complete absence of migraine headaches is a positive outcome, but it is not always achievable. Immediate cessation of all headaches might not be realistic with every dose.
Choice C rationale: This is correct. Sumatriptan, a serotonin receptor agonist, is designed to terminate or relieve an ongoing migraine headache when administered during an attack. The patient reporting the termination of the migraine headache after drug administration suggests the desired therapeutic effect.
Choice D rationale: Increased nausea is not a desired therapeutic effect of sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is used to relieve the symptoms of migraines, including nausea, not exacerbate them.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Atropine is not primarily used to prevent anxiety. Its main use is to increase heart rate by blocking vagal effects on the heart.
Choice B rationale: Atropine is commonly used to prevent or treat bradycardia, particularly during anesthesia induction, when vagal stimulation can lead to significant slowing of the heart rate.
Choice C rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of atropine, not its primary use. Atropine is not given to prevent dry mouth.
Choice D rationale: Atropine is not used to prevent hypertension. Its primary cardiovascular effect is to increase heart rate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Methadone is an opioid analgesic and may exacerbate respiratory depression. It is not typically used as an antidote for opioid overdose.
Choice B rationale: Nalbuphine is a partial opioid agonist-antagonist and may have less respiratory depressant effect than pure opioid agonists. However, naloxone is the specific opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose situations.
Choice C rationale: Tramadol is an opioid analgesic and may exacerbate respiratory depression. It is not typically used as an antidote for opioid overdose.
Choice D rationale: Naloxone is the opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid- induced respiratory depression. It should be administered in the case of opioid overdose.
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