The nurse is caring for a patient with a tumor of the bone who experiences a fracture. Which type of break is anticipated?

Greenstick

Stress

Avulsion

Pathological

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Greenstick: This type of fracture typically occurs in children where the bone bends and cracks, rather than breaking completely. It is not related to bone tumors.
B. Stress: Stress fractures are small cracks in the bone typically due to repetitive force or overuse, not due to underlying conditions like bone tumors.
C. Avulsion: This occurs when a fragment of bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament due to a forceful contraction or injury, and is not typically associated with bone tumors.
D. Pathological: Pathological fractures occur in bones weakened by disease, such as bone tumors. These fractures happen with minimal or no trauma because the bone integrity is compromised by the tumor.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Heparin: Heparin is an anticoagulant, but it is not typically used in the acute management of ischemic stroke because it does not dissolve clots already formed. It may be used later for prophylaxis against new clots.
B. Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA): This is correct. tPA is a thrombolytic agent that can dissolve the clot causing the stroke. It is most effective when given within a few hours of symptom onset, making it the appropriate medication in this scenario.
C. Warfarin: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term prevention of clot formation but is not suitable for immediate thrombolytic therapy in acute ischemic stroke.
D. Clopidogrel: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication used for secondary prevention of strokes but is not used for acute thrombolysis.

A. A patient with a BP of 170/80 mm Hg with a mild headache B. A patient with a BP of 180/120 mm Hg who is asymptomatic C. A patient with a BP of 150/60 mm Hg who is anxious D. A patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 140/70 mm Hg who has a nosebleed

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A patient with a BP of 170/80 mm Hg with a mild headache: Although high, this BP is not as immediately critical as 180/120 mm Hg. The patient is experiencing only a mild headache, indicating less urgency.
B. A patient with a BP of 180/120 mm Hg who is asymptomatic: This BP level indicates a hypertensive crisis, which can lead to life-threatening complications such as stroke or heart attack, even if the patient is asymptomatic. Immediate intervention is needed to lower the BP safely.
C. A patient with a BP of 150/60 mm Hg who is anxious: This BP is elevated but not critically so. Anxiety management may be necessary but is not as urgent as managing a hypertensive crisis.
D. A patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 140/70 mm Hg who has a nosebleed: This BP is relatively mild compared to 180/120 mm Hg and is less immediately threatening, even with a nosebleed.

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The nurse is caring for a patient with a tumor of the bone who experiences a fracture. Which type of break is anticipated?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Explanation

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