The nurse is caring for a client with schizoaffective disorder and type 2 diabetes mellitus who receives a prescription for a second generation antipsychotic. The client expresses concern to the nurse about the effect of this antipsychotic on blood glucose levels. Which response should the nurse make?
"This medication may cause watery eyes and diarrhea. These will go away within 2 weeks."
"Side effects are not likely with this type of medication. There should be no need to worry."
"I can provide an education sheet with your discharge papers. What is your primary language?"
"This type of medication is generally well tolerated. Tell me more about your concerns."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: The nurse's response regarding watery eyes and diarrhea is not directly related to the client's concern about the medication's effect on blood glucose levels.
Choice B rationale: This response minimizes the potential side effects, which is not accurate. Second-generation antipsychotics are associated with metabolic side effects, including changes in blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Offering an education sheet is helpful but does not directly address the client's specific concerns about the medication's impact on blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale: This response acknowledges the client's concern, provides information about the general tolerability of the medication, and invites the client to share more about their specific worries. It encourages open communication and allows the nurse to address the client's concerns more effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Administering an antianxiolytic medication may be appropriate, but addressing the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance is the priority.
Choice B rationale: Inserting a fecal management tube is not the first action to take in response to hemoccult positive liquid stools; addressing fluid balance is more urgent.
Choice C rationale: Inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter is the priority to address the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance and provide necessary hydration and medications.
Choice D rationale: Crushing pills and placing them in applesauce may be considered, but the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance needs prompt attention first.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Involving her in group therapy may be premature, as the client has just started to exhibit changes in behavior. Continuous observation is necessary to assess the nature and sustainability of these changes.
Choice B rationale: Praising her for the new behavior is positive, but continuous observation is essential to monitor for any signs of escalating or problematic behavior.
Choice C rationale: Observing her actions continuously is the most appropriate action at this point. The nurse needs to monitor the client closely to assess the nature of the changes, ensuring they are not indicative of increased agitation or potential harm.
Choice D rationale: Offering her a choice of activities may be appropriate once the nurse has a better understanding of the clien's current state. However, continuous observation is the priority.
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