The nurse is caring for a client who develops signs and symptoms of septic shock following a urinary tract infection one week ago.
The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol to be initiated.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
Keep head of bed raised 45 degrees.
Maintain strict intake and output.
Monitor blood glucose level.
Assess warmth of extremities.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Keeping the head of the bed raised 45 degrees is a crucial intervention in septic shock. This position helps improve oxygenation and reduces the risk of aspiration. It promotes better lung function and can help maintain a higher mean arterial pressure, which is important in the management of sepsis.
Choice B rationale:
Maintaining strict intake and output is important for assessing fluid balance, but it is not the most critical intervention when a client is in septic shock. Hemodynamic stability and oxygenation take precedence in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring blood glucose levels is an essential aspect of care, especially in critically ill patients. However, it is not the most important intervention in the immediate management of septic shock.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the warmth of extremities is important for circulatory assessment, but it is not the most crucial intervention in septic shock. Hemodynamic support and maintaining oxygenation are higher priorities.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice b. Respiratory alkalosis.
Choice A rationale:
Metabolic alkalosis occurs when there is a loss of acid or an increase in bicarbonate in the body. This can be due to vomiting, diuretic use, or excessive bicarbonate intake. It is not typically associated with hyperventilation.
Choice B rationale:
Respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation, which leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood. This condition is often triggered by anxiety, fear, pain, or fever, all of which are present in this adolescent.
Choice C rationale:
Metabolic acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of acid or a loss of bicarbonate in the body. This can be due to conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, renal failure, or severe diarrhea. It is not typically associated with hyperventilation.
Choice D rationale:
Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of CO2 in the blood due to hypoventilation or impaired lung function. This condition is not consistent with hyperventilation, which reduces CO2 levels.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Aspirin is not typically contraindicated in a client who has taken sildenafil unless there are specific contraindications or allergies. Aspirin is often used in the management of acute chest pain to help prevent blood clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Heparin is not contraindicated solely because the client has taken sildenafil. Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly used in various clinical settings, including the management of certain cardiac conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Morphine is not necessarily contraindicated based solely on the client's use of sildenafil. Morphine can be used to relieve chest pain in some cases of acute coronary syndrome. However, its use should be carefully evaluated based on the client's overall clinical presentation.
Choice D rationale:
Nitroglycerin should be withheld in this scenario. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It can potentiate the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, leading to a severe drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of nitroglycerin and sildenafil is contraindicated due to the risk of significant hypotension, which can be life-threatening.
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