The nurse is caring for a client who delivered a newborn 2 days ago and states that they are experiencing crying spells, anxiety, and sadness that started the day after delivery. Which is the most therapeutic action by the nurse?
Refer the client to a psychiatrist since it is important to get treatment for postpartum depression quickly.
Inform the client that these symptoms will go away and to seek support from friends and family.
Discuss with the client the potential for involuntary admission to prevent harm to self and newborn.
Prepare for the administration of an IV neuroactive steroid over a 60-hour period of time.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Referring the client to a psychiatrist is important for a quick evaluation and treatment of postpartum depression, which can be serious if left untreated.
Choice B reason: Informing the client that symptoms will go away may not be therapeutic if the client is experiencing postpartum depression, which requires professional treatment.
Choice C reason: Discussing involuntary admission may be necessary if there is an immediate risk of harm, but it is not the first therapeutic action to take.
Choice D reason: Preparing for the administration of an IV neuroactive steroid could be part of a treatment plan, but it would typically follow a psychiatric evaluation and diagnosis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This client presents with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, which are often associated with a poorer prognosis. Negative symptoms like alogia and anhedonia indicate a diminished emotional response and lack of motivation, which can severely impact the client's ability to function and respond to treatment.

Choice B reason: Having a first cousin with bipolar I disorder may suggest a genetic predisposition to mood disorders but does not directly influence the prognosis of a client already diagnosed with schizophrenia.
Choice C reason: While an exacerbation of hallucinations and delusions indicates a worsening of symptoms, it is the positive symptoms of schizophrenia that are often more responsive to treatment. Therefore, this client may not necessarily have the worst outcomes.
Choice D reason: An older adult with a late onset of schizophrenia typically has a better prognosis than those with an earlier onset. Late-onset schizophrenia is often less severe and may respond better to treatment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is: "Tell me what is concerning you."
Choice A reason:
Asking "Did your husband say something to upset you?" may seem accusatory and could lead the spouse to feel defensive. It does not open a dialogue for the spouse to express their concerns freely and can be perceived as leading the conversation in a negative direction.
Choice B reason:
"Tell me what is concerning you." is an open-ended statement that invites the spouse to share their feelings and concerns. It demonstrates empathy and active listening, which are key components of therapeutic communication. This response encourages the spouse to elaborate on their feelings and fosters a supportive environment.
Choice C reason:
Saying "Your husband is making really good progress!" is reassuring, but it does not address the spouse's current emotional state or concerns. It may come across as dismissive of the spouse's feelings and does not encourage further discussion about their worries.
Choice D reason:
Asking "Did something bad happen to your husband?" can increase anxiety and assumes a negative event has occurred. It is not a therapeutic response because it does not provide comfort or support to the spouse in a stressful situation.
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