The nurse is caring for a client three hours after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement. The client now complains of 5/10 chest pain. The client is visibly diaphoretic and anxious. The ECG shows ST segment elevations. The vital signs are as follows: BP: 156/82, HR: 110, RR: 20, T: 98.6, and Sp02: 94% on 2L nasal canula. The nurse anticipates which intervention in this situation?
Fluid bolus and IV heparin
A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray
Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours
Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty
The Correct Answer is D
A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.
C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.
D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Similar to the angina attacks you had in the past:
This response is not entirely accurate. Angina refers to chest pain that occurs when the heart's demand for oxygen exceeds its supply, usually due to partial blockage of the coronary arteries. NSTEMI (non-ST elevation myocardial infarction) is different from angina in that it involves actual heart muscle injury or damage due to partial or intermittent blockage of a coronary artery, whereas angina does not cause permanent heart muscle damage. Therefore, describing NSTEMI as similar to past angina attacks would be misleading.
B. A condition characterized by coronary arteries vasodilating:
This is incorrect. NSTEMI occurs due to a partial blockage or narrowing of the coronary arteries, usually caused by a blood clot that forms around a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque. The blockage restricts blood flow to the heart muscle, causing injury or infarction. Vasodilation (the widening of blood vessels) is not a characteristic of NSTEMI; in fact, it is the constriction or blockage of the coronary arteries that leads to this type of heart attack.
C. A term used to describe an irregular heartbeat:
This is incorrect. NSTEMI is not related to an irregular heartbeat or arrhythmia directly. While arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats) can occur as a result of a heart attack, NSTEMI specifically refers to a type of heart attack that is not accompanied by the characteristic ST-segment elevation seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) in a STEMI (ST-elevation myocardial infarction). It indicates a partial blockage of a coronary artery and is generally less severe than STEMI.
D. Is a less severe type of heart attack compared to STEMI:
This is the most accurate response. NSTEMI is a type of heart attack that is often considered less severe than STEMI, but still involves heart muscle injury. The difference between NSTEMI and STEMI lies in the ECG findings: STEMI involves a full-thickness myocardial infarction with a significant blockage of the artery, as indicated by ST-segment elevation on an ECG. In NSTEMI, there is a partial blockage or temporary decrease in blood flow, and the ST-segment does not elevate on the ECG, but biomarkers (like troponin) are elevated, indicating heart muscle damage. NSTEMI is often less severe in terms of the extent of damage compared to STEMI, but it still requires urgent treatment to prevent further complications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Use pyridostigmine as needed to relieve symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue: Pyridostigmine should not be used on an "as-needed" basis, as it is a long-acting medication that works by maintaining a steady level of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The client needs to take the medication regularly at prescribed intervals, not sporadically, to maintain consistent symptom control. This statement reflects a misunderstanding of the medication's use.
B. Be able to crush the sustained release tablet because of difficulty swallowing: Sustained-release (or extended-release) tablets should not be crushed because doing so can cause the medication to be released too quickly, leading to potential side effects or overdose. If the client has difficulty swallowing, an alternative form of the medication, such as a liquid or split tablet, should be considered. This statement reflects a lack of understanding regarding the proper administration of the medication.
C. Skip a dose if I have symptoms of fatigue to minimize side effects of the medications: Skipping doses of pyridostigmine is not appropriate. The medication should be taken as prescribed, even if the client feels fatigued. Fatigue is a symptom of myasthenia gravis, not necessarily a side effect of the medication. Consistent dosing is important for controlling the disease and preventing worsening of symptoms. Skipping doses can lead to inadequate symptom control and potential exacerbation of weakness.
D. Take pyridostigmine 30-60 minutes before meals to improve muscle function: This statement indicates that the client understands the appropriate use of pyridostigmine for managing myasthenia gravis (MG). Pyridostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that helps improve neuromuscular transmission, and it is typically taken 30-60 minutes before meals. This timing helps optimize muscle strength during the period when the client is eating, as muscle weakness can make swallowing more difficult. By taking the medication before meals, the client is more likely to experience improved muscle function when needed most.
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