The nurse is caring for a client three hours after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement. The client now complains of 5/10 chest pain. The client is visibly diaphoretic and anxious. The ECG shows ST segment elevations. The vital signs are as follows: BP: 156/82, HR: 110, RR: 20, T: 98.6, and Sp02: 94% on 2L nasal canula. The nurse anticipates which intervention in this situation?

Fluid bolus and IV heparin

A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray

Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours

Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.

B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.

C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.

D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis: Fully compensated respiratory acidosis would involve a low pH (indicative of acidosis), elevated PaCO2 (due to impaired ventilation), and a normal HCO3 level as compensation by the kidneys. The given ABG results show metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation, not respiratory acidosis.

B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis: In respiratory acidosis, you would expect an elevated PaCO2 (not low, as seen here) and a compensatory increase in HCO3. However, the ABG results show low HCO3 and low PaCO2, indicating that this is metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis.

C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis: Uncompensated metabolic acidosis would be indicated by a low pH and low bicarbonate (HCO3), with normal PaCO2. Since the PaCO2 is low, this suggests partial respiratory compensation, making this scenario not uncompensated but partially compensated.

D. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis: To interpret these ABG results, let's break down the values:

pH 7.32 (normal range: 7.35–7.45) indicates acidosis, as it is below the normal range.

PaCO2 33 mmHg (normal range: 35–45 mmHg) is low, suggesting that respiratory compensation is occurring to counteract the acidosis. In metabolic acidosis, the lungs typically attempt to blow off CO2 to reduce acid levels, which is why PaCO2 is low here.

HCO3 16 mEq/L (normal range: 22–25 mEq/L) is low, confirming a metabolic acidosis. The low bicarbonate level is characteristic of metabolic acidosis, where the body loses too much bicarbonate or produces too much acid. PaO2 88 mmHg (normal range: 80–95 mmHg) is within the normal range and does not indicate a significant respiratory issue.

A. a sleep aid and used to promote sleep along with melatonin. B. a muscle relaxant medication used to reduce muscle spasms. C. an antibiotic medication used to treat bacterial infections. D. an opiate and is used to relieve severe pain.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Tizanidine is a sleep aid and used to promote sleep along with melatonin:

This is incorrect. Tizanidine is not classified as a sleep aid. While muscle relaxants like tizanidine may cause drowsiness as a side effect, its primary purpose is to reduce muscle spasms rather than to promote sleep. Using it in combination with melatonin for sleep would not be appropriate unless specifically prescribed by a healthcare provider.

B. Tizanidine is a muscle relaxant medication used to reduce muscle spasms:

Tizanidine is a centrally acting muscle relaxant that is commonly used to treat muscle spasms and spasticity. In clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), spasticity can be a significant symptom, leading to muscle stiffness and discomfort. Tizanidine helps by relaxing the muscles and alleviating the muscle tightness associated with ALS. It works by inhibiting nerve impulses that cause muscles to contract, thus reducing spasticity and improving mobility. This medication is not intended for sleep promotion or pain relief directly, but rather to manage muscle spasms.

C. Tizanidine is an antibiotic medication used to treat bacterial infections:

This is incorrect. Tizanidine is not an antibiotic and has no role in treating bacterial infections. It is a muscle relaxant used for managing spasticity, not an antimicrobial drug.

D. Tizanidine is an opiate and is used to relieve severe pain:

This is incorrect. Tizanidine is not an opiate and does not belong to the class of opioids. It does not have the pain-relieving effects of opioid analgesics. While it may provide some relief from muscle discomfort, it is not used to treat severe pain in the way opiates like morphine or oxycodone are. Tizanidine’s primary purpose is to address muscle spasticity, not pain management.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client was given a medical prescription for tizanidine. What information would the nurse provide regarding this medication? Tizanidine is

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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