A client is admitted to the Emergency Department (ED) with a suspected ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) involving the inferior wall. The nurse anticipates that this client will be immediately scheduled for the cardiac catheterization laboratory. The goal of treatment is to:

Administer antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications to prevent further clot formation.

Relieve the blockage in the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the heart muscle.

Provide pain relief and initiate cardiac rehabilitation.

Stabilize the dient's blood pressure and administer thrombolytic therapy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Administer antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications to prevent further clot formation:
While antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications are essential in the management of STEMI to reduce the risk of further clot formation, they are not the primary goal of treatment in the immediate phase. These medications are typically administered before or during the procedure (such as during cardiac catheterization) to prevent new clots, but the primary objective is to restore blood flow to the heart muscle through reperfusion therapy, either by angioplasty or thrombolytics.

B) Relieve the blockage in the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the heart muscle:
This is the primary goal of treatment in STEMI. The most urgent intervention for a client with an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is to relieve the blockage in the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the ischemic heart muscle. This is typically achieved through percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via cardiac catheterization, which involves either angioplasty (ballooning the artery) or stent placement. Restoring blood flow as quickly as possible reduces the extent of myocardial damage, improves the prognosis, and prevents complications like heart failure.

C) Provide pain relief and initiate cardiac rehabilitation:
Pain relief is important in the initial management of STEMI, typically with nitroglycerin and opioids for chest pain. However, the immediate goal in the ED is to address the underlying cause of the chest pain, which is the blockage of blood flow. Cardiac rehabilitation, while essential for long-term recovery, is not the immediate goal of treatment during the acute phase of a STEMI. The primary focus should be on restoring circulation to the affected myocardium.

D) Stabilize the client's blood pressure and administer thrombolytic therapy:
Stabilizing the client’s blood pressure is important, especially if the client is hypotensive, but it is not the main treatment goal. Thrombolytic therapy (clot-busting medications) is an option if PCI is not available or if it needs to be done within a certain time frame; however, the current best practice in STEMI is to perform PCI as soon as possible. Thrombolytics are typically used when PCI is not immediately available, but the ideal treatment is to restore blood flow through catheterization in a timely manner, as it is more effective than thrombolytic therapy at re-opening the blocked artery.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. pH 7.44; PaO2 44 mmHg; PaCO2 35 mmHg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; O2 Sat 76%: This set of arterial blood gas (ABG) values is consistent with hypoxemic respiratory failure. Hypoxemic respiratory failure is characterized by a PaO2 less than 60 mmHg, and this client has a PaO2 of 44 mmHg, which is significantly below the normal range of 80-95 mmHg. Despite the fact that the client is on a 100% non-rebreather mask (which should ideally deliver high levels of oxygen), the low PaO2 suggests that oxygenation is not being effectively improved. Additionally, the low O2 saturation of 76% further supports the diagnosis of hypoxemic respiratory failure.

B. pH 7.30; PaO2 80 mmHg; PaCO2 62 mmHg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; O2 Sat 94%: This ABG indicates respiratory acidosis (pH is low, PaCO2 is elevated), but the PaO2 of 80 mmHg is within the normal range, and the O2 saturation of 94% is also normal. Respiratory acidosis with a normal PaO2 would indicate an issue with ventilation (hypoventilation), not hypoxemic respiratory failure. The patient is retaining CO2 but is still oxygenating well, so this result does not indicate hypoxemic respiratory failure.

C. pH 7.35; PaO2 65 mmHg; PaCO2 40 mmHg; HCO3 26 mEq/L; O2 Sat 90%: This result shows a PaO2 of 65 mmHg, which is mildly low but not sufficiently low to meet the criteria for hypoxemic respiratory failure (PaO2 should be below 60 mmHg for this diagnosis). The O2 saturation of 90% is also slightly low but not critically low. This client may have mild hypoxia but is not in respiratory failure based on these values.

D. pH 7.48; PaO2 75 mmHg; PaCO2 41 mmHg; HCO3 28 mEq/L; O2 Sat 93%: In this case, the PaO2 of 75 mmHg is slightly low but still within an acceptable range, and the O2 saturation of 93% is adequate. The elevated pH and normal PaCO2 suggest the presence of respiratory alkalosis (likely caused by hyperventilation). These ABG results are not consistent with hypoxemic respiratory failure, as the oxygen levels are still within a safe range.

A. Wheezes on inspiration B. Blood pressure 170/90 C. Tachypnea D. Bradycardia

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Wheezes on inspiration: Wheezing is typically associated with obstructive pulmonary conditions, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and is caused by narrowing of the airways. In ARDS, the pathophysiology involves inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which leads to impaired oxygen exchange but not typically to wheezing. Instead, crackles or rales (a fine, wet sound) are more commonly heard on auscultation in ARDS, particularly as fluid builds up in the alveoli.

B. Blood pressure 170/90: Although ARDS can be associated with hemodynamic instability, elevated blood pressure (170/90 mmHg) is not a typical finding. In fact, ARDS is more commonly associated with low blood pressure or hypotension, particularly if the client is experiencing shock or is on mechanical ventilation. Elevated blood pressure could suggest another issue, such as pain, anxiety, or the use of medications like vasopressors. It is not directly related to the pulmonary edema seen in ARDS.

C. Tachypnea: Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a hallmark clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). In ARDS, pulmonary edema (fluid accumulation in the lungs) occurs as a result of damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to impaired gas exchange. The body attempts to compensate for decreased oxygenation by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to tachypnea. This is an early sign of respiratory distress and often precedes hypoxemia and other more severe manifestations. The nurse should closely monitor for tachypnea, as it can indicate worsening respiratory compromise.

D. Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with ARDS. In fact, tachycardia (an elevated heart rate) is more commonly seen in response to hypoxia, respiratory distress, or as a compensatory mechanism for low blood pressure in critical illness. Bradycardia could indicate other issues such as vagal stimulation, medication effects, or electrolyte imbalances but is not characteristic of ARDS itself. 4o mini

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A client is admitted to the Emergency Department (ED) with a suspected ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) involving the inferior wall. The nurse anticipates that this client will be immediately scheduled for the cardiac catheterization laboratory. The goal of treatment is to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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