Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for the client who has had an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction?

Weighing the client at the same time every day

Assuring hourly urine output of at least 25 mL per hour

Maintaining strict bedrest for the first 24 hours

Providing pain control and reducing oxygen demand

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Weighing the client at the same time every day:
While daily weights are important for monitoring fluid status (especially in patients at risk for heart failure or fluid retention), it is not the highest priority in the immediate post-MI period. Weighing the client daily can be useful to track fluid accumulation, but addressing the client’s pain management and oxygenation needs takes precedence in the acute phase of an MI.

B. Assuring hourly urine output of at least 25 mL per hour:
Maintaining adequate urine output (typically around 30 mL per hour) is important to assess renal perfusion and fluid balance, especially if the patient is at risk for renal insufficiency or cardiogenic shock. However, this is not the highest priority immediately following an MI. The first priority is managing the oxygen supply to the heart, and addressing pain and reducing myocardial oxygen demand is more crucial in the acute phase to prevent further damage.

C. Maintaining strict bedrest for the first 24 hours:
Strict bedrest may have been a common practice in the past for patients following an MI, but current guidelines emphasize early mobilization and gradual activity as tolerated to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE), and muscle deconditioning. While some degree of rest may be necessary immediately after an MI, the priority is to control pain and reduce oxygen demand, not strictly maintain bedrest. Prolonged immobility is not recommended in the modern management of MI unless there are specific contraindications.

D. Providing pain control and reducing oxygen demand is the most critical intervention in the acute phase of an anterior wall MI. Effective pain relief helps to reduce sympathetic stimulation, which decreases heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, preventing further myocardial injury and improving outcomes. This is essential for stabilizing the client early in their post-MI course.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.

B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.

C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.

D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.

A. respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. B. respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. C. blood pressure 86/42 mmHg. D. heart rate of 45 beats per minute.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Explanation of each option:

A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute:
A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute would be too slow in a patient with ARDS and hypoxemia. In response to hypoxemia, the body typically increases the respiratory rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute would not be expected in this situation.

B. Respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute: The arterial blood gas (ABG) results indicate respiratory alkalosis with hypoxemia, which is a common finding in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). pH 7.59: This is alkalotic, meaning the body is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.

PaCO2 29 mmHg: The PaCO2 is low, indicating hyperventilation, which is a compensatory response to the alkalosis in an attempt to reduce carbon dioxide levels.

PaO2 55 mmHg: This is severely low, indicating hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood), a hallmark of ARDS. HCO3 22 mEq/L: The bicarbonate is normal, suggesting that the metabolic component has not yet compensated for the respiratory alkalosis, or that it is in the early stages of compensation. Given these ABG results, the body is attempting to compensate for hypoxemia by increasing respiratory rate (tachypnea), which leads to hyperventilation and further reduction in PaCO2. Therefore, an expected assessment finding in this scenario would be a high respiratory rate (such as 32 breaths per minute), which is a compensatory response to hypoxemia.

C. Blood pressure 86/42 mmHg:
While hypotension can occur in severe cases of ARDS due to impaired oxygenation and circulation, it is not directly reflected by the ABG results provided. Hypoxemia and alkalosis would more likely lead to tachypnea and compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia, rather than significant hypotension unless there is another contributing factor, such as shock or sepsis. Therefore, hypotension is not the most expected finding based on these ABGs.

D. Heart rate of 45 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 45 beats per minute is bradycardic, which would be unusual in a patient with hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis. Tachycardia is a more common compensatory response to hypoxia, as the heart works harder to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. A heart rate of 45 beats per minute would be more suggestive of a different underlying condition, such as vagal stimulation or cardiac conduction issues, but it is not the expected response in this case.

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Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for the client who has had an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

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