The nurse is attempting to determine the ventricular rate and rhythm of a patient's telemetry strip. What should the nurse examine to determine this part of the analysis?
RR Interval
QT interval
PP interval
PR interval
The Correct Answer is A
A. RR Interval:
The RR interval is the time between two consecutive R waves on an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip. It is primarily used to determine the ventricular rate and rhythm of the heart. A regular RR interval suggests a regular heart rhythm, while irregular intervals may indicate arrhythmias or other cardiac abnormalities. Calculating the RR interval can help determine the heart rate (ventricular rate) by dividing 60 seconds by the RR interval in seconds (e.g., if the RR interval is 0.8 seconds, the heart rate would be approximately 75 beats per minute).
B. QT Interval:
The QT interval represents the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave on an ECG. It reflects the time it takes for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize. Prolongation or shortening of the QT interval can indicate certain cardiac conditions or medication effects, including an increased risk of arrhythmias such as torsades de pointes. However, it is not directly used to determine ventricular rate and rhythm as the RR interval is.
C. PP Interval:
The PP interval is the time between two consecutive P waves on an ECG strip. It is primarily used to assess the atrial rate and rhythm. Regular PP intervals indicate a regular atrial rhythm, while irregular intervals may suggest atrial arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. The PP interval is not directly used to determine ventricular rate and rhythm.
D. PR Interval:
The PR interval is the time from the start of the P wave to the start of the QRS complex on an ECG strip. It represents the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. A normal PR interval is typically between 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. Prolongation or shortening of the PR interval can indicate certain cardiac conduction abnormalities.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The symptoms indicate an acute coronary episode and should be treated as such:
The client's symptoms, including sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest and a history of coronary artery disease (CAD), strongly suggest an acute coronary event, such as a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Pale, cool skin can also be indicative of decreased perfusion due to cardiac compromise. Given these critical signs and symptoms, the nurse should interpret this as a potential cardiac emergency and initiate immediate interventions aimed at managing and stabilizing the client's condition.
B. The symptoms indicate angina and should be treated as such:
While angina can present with symptoms such as chest pain, it is typically relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. In contrast, the client in this scenario has midsternal chest pain that is not relieved with rest, which is more indicative of an acute coronary event like a myocardial infarction. Therefore, interpreting the symptoms as angina and treating them as such may not be appropriate given the severity and persistence of the chest pain.
C. Treatment should be determined pending the results of an exercise stress test:
Waiting for the results of an exercise stress test is not appropriate in this scenario, as the client's presentation suggests an acute cardiac event that requires immediate intervention. Exercise stress tests are typically used for diagnostic purposes to assess cardiovascular function under controlled conditions but are not suitable for managing acute coronary episodes or emergencies.
D. The symptoms indicate a pulmonary etiology rather than a cardiac etiology:
While some symptoms, such as shortness of breath or chest pain, can overlap between cardiac and pulmonary conditions, the client's presentation with sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest, pale cool skin, and a history of CAD strongly suggests a cardiac etiology, specifically an acute coronary event. It is essential to prioritize cardiac assessment and intervention based on the client's symptoms and medical history.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Remove the client's IV access:
Removing the client's IV access is not the most appropriate initial action when a client experiences difficulty breathing and severe chest tightness during a transfusion. While it's important to discontinue the infusion, the immediate priority is to stop the transfusion itself to prevent further reaction and assess the client's condition.
B. Assess the client's chest sounds and vital signs:
This choice is the correct answer. After stopping the transfusion, the nurse should assess the client's respiratory status by listening to chest sounds for any wheezing or crackles, as well as checking vital signs such as oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate. These assessments help evaluate the severity of the reaction and guide further interventions.
C. Notify the client's healthcare provider:
Notifying the healthcare provider is an essential step, but it typically follows the immediate action of stopping the transfusion and assessing the client's condition. The healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly about the client's condition, transfusion reaction, and the actions taken for further guidance and orders.
D. Stop the transfusion immediately:
This is the initial and most critical action when a client experiences signs of a transfusion reaction such as difficulty breathing and severe chest tightness. Stopping the transfusion promptly helps prevent the reaction from worsening and allows for immediate assessment and intervention to ensure client safety.
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