The nurse in the Emergency Department (ED) assesses a 17-year-old patient with blue-tinged lips, slowed respirations, and pinpoint pupils. The patient has no response to painful stimuli. Which of the following should be the nurse’s priority action?
Get the defibrillator to the patient’s bedside and open the crash cart.
Administer oxygen via 100% nonrebreather and place an IV catheter to give naloxone.
Administer naloxone intranasally if there is not an IV catheter in place.
Contact the patient’s parents or legal guardian for consent to treat.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is b. Administer oxygen via 100% nonrebreather and place an IV catheter to give naloxone.
Choice A Reason: Get the defibrillator to the patient’s bedside and open the crash cart
While having the defibrillator and crash cart ready is important in emergency situations, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. The patient’s symptoms suggest opioid overdose, which requires immediate intervention to support breathing and reverse the effects of the opioid. The primary focus should be on ensuring adequate oxygenation and administering naloxone.
Choice B Reason: Administer oxygen via 100% nonrebreather and place an IV catheter to give naloxone
This is the correct answer. The patient’s blue-tinged lips, slowed respirations, and pinpoint pupils are indicative of opioid overdose. Administering oxygen via a 100% nonrebreather mask helps to ensure adequate oxygenation, while placing an IV catheter allows for the administration of naloxone, an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of the overdose. This intervention addresses the immediate life-threatening condition.
Choice C Reason: Administer naloxone intranasally if there is not an IV catheter in place
While administering naloxone intranasally is an appropriate alternative if IV access is not available, it is not the first priority. The initial focus should be on ensuring adequate oxygenation and establishing IV access for more effective administration of naloxone. If IV access cannot be quickly established, then intranasal naloxone can be used.
Choice D Reason: Contact the patient’s parents or legal guardian for consent to treat
Obtaining consent is important, but it is not the immediate priority in a life-threatening situation. The nurse’s primary responsibility is to stabilize the patient and address the acute medical emergency. Once the patient is stabilized, the nurse can then contact the parents or legal guardian for further consent and information.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Prevents Extrapyramidal Side Effects
Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) are drug-induced movement disorders that include symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side effects are commonly associated with first-generation antipsychotics. While second-generation antipsychotics like olanzapine have a lower risk of causing EPS, their primary use in this context is not to prevent these side effects. Therefore, this choice is not the most appropriate response to the family’s question.
Choice B Reason: Reduces Agitation Until the Lithium Takes Effect
Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that is effective in managing acute agitation and psychotic symptoms in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium, while effective for long-term mood stabilization, takes several days to weeks to reach therapeutic levels and exert its full effect. During this period, olanzapine can help reduce the client’s agitation and stabilize their mood. This makes it the most appropriate response to the family’s question.
Choice C Reason: Cures Manic Symptoms
While olanzapine can help manage manic symptoms, it does not “cure” them. Bipolar disorder is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management with medications and therapy. The term “cure” is misleading as it implies a permanent resolution of symptoms, which is not the case with bipolar disorder. Therefore, this choice is not accurate.
Choice D Reason: Ensures High-Quality Sleep
Olanzapine can have sedative effects and may help improve sleep in some patients. However, its primary use in this scenario is to manage acute agitation and psychotic symptoms rather than to ensure high-quality sleep. While improved sleep may be a beneficial side effect, it is not the main reason for its prescription in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Encouraging the client to consume foods high in vitamin B1 (thiamine) is beneficial, but it may not be sufficient alone to prevent Korsakoff’s syndrome in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Thiamine is crucial for brain function, and its deficiency can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. However, due to malabsorption issues common in alcohol use disorder, dietary intake alone might not meet the necessary thiamine levels.
Choice B Reason: Implementing strict bed rest to conserve energy is not directly related to preventing Korsakoff’s syndrome. While rest is important for overall health, it does not address the thiamine deficiency that leads to this condition. Korsakoff’s syndrome is primarily caused by a lack of thiamine, and conserving energy does not mitigate this deficiency.
Choice C Reason: Restricting fluid intake to prevent water intoxication is not relevant to preventing Korsakoff’s syndrome. Water intoxication is a separate issue and does not address the thiamine deficiency that causes Korsakoff’s syndrome. Proper hydration is important, but it does not prevent the neurological damage associated with thiamine deficiency.
Choice D Reason: Administering thiamine supplements as prescribed is the most appropriate intervention to prevent Korsakoff’s syndrome. Thiamine supplementation is crucial for individuals with alcohol use disorder because their bodies often cannot absorb enough thiamine from food alone. Thiamine is essential for brain function, and its deficiency can lead to severe neurological damage. Administering supplements ensures that the client receives an adequate amount of this vital nutrient.
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