The nurse has given education for a client who is going to have an exercise stress test. The nurse knows the client understands the teaching when they say what?
I will not have to get an IV placed.
I can eat my breakfast before the test.
I must not drink my hot chocolate in the morning.
I can wear the clothes I would wear to the office.
The Correct Answer is C
A. "I will not have to get an IV placed." An IV may be placed in some cases, especially if the stress test includes the use of a pharmacological agent (like adenosine or dobutamine) in place of exercise.
B. "I can eat my breakfast before the test." Clients are typically instructed to fast for at least 3 hours before the exercise stress test. Eating could interfere with accurate test results and the ability to safely exercise. The client should not eat right before the test.
C. "I must not drink my hot chocolate in the morning." Caffeine can interfere with the results of the exercise stress test by increasing heart rate and potentially masking abnormal responses to exercise. Therefore, the client should avoid caffeine (including hot chocolate) before the test.
D. "I can wear the clothes I would wear to the office." The client should wear comfortable clothing and shoes that allow for physical activity and movement, such as athletic wear. Office attire may not be suitable for the physical exertion required during the exercise stress test.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. RR Interval:
The RR interval is the time between two consecutive R waves on an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip. It is primarily used to determine the ventricular rate and rhythm of the heart. A regular RR interval suggests a regular heart rhythm, while irregular intervals may indicate arrhythmias or other cardiac abnormalities. Calculating the RR interval can help determine the heart rate (ventricular rate) by dividing 60 seconds by the RR interval in seconds (e.g., if the RR interval is 0.8 seconds, the heart rate would be approximately 75 beats per minute).
B. QT Interval:
The QT interval represents the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave on an ECG. It reflects the time it takes for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize. Prolongation or shortening of the QT interval can indicate certain cardiac conditions or medication effects, including an increased risk of arrhythmias such as torsades de pointes. However, it is not directly used to determine ventricular rate and rhythm as the RR interval is.
C. PP Interval:
The PP interval is the time between two consecutive P waves on an ECG strip. It is primarily used to assess the atrial rate and rhythm. Regular PP intervals indicate a regular atrial rhythm, while irregular intervals may suggest atrial arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. The PP interval is not directly used to determine ventricular rate and rhythm.
D. PR Interval:
The PR interval is the time from the start of the P wave to the start of the QRS complex on an ECG strip. It represents the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. A normal PR interval is typically between 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. Prolongation or shortening of the PR interval can indicate certain cardiac conduction abnormalities.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Ascending edema:
Ascending edema, also known as dependent edema, is typically associated with right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure. In right-sided heart failure, the heart's ability to pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation is compromised, leading to fluid backup in the systemic circulation. This fluid accumulates in the dependent areas of the body, such as the lower extremities (legs and ankles), causing swelling that can ascend upwards if left untreated. However, ascending edema is not a characteristic finding in left-sided heart failure, where pulmonary congestion and orthopnea are more common manifestations.
B. The client has no desire to eat:
While decreased appetite can occur in heart failure due to various factors such as fluid retention, abdominal bloating, or medication side effects, it is not a specific hallmark of left-sided heart failure. Symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea (shortness of breath), orthopnea (difficulty breathing while lying flat), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. These symptoms result from the impaired function of the left ventricle, leading to pulmonary congestion and inadequate oxygenation.
C. The client sleeps on three pillows at night:
This choice is the correct answer. Sleeping on three pillows at night is a classic manifestation of orthopnea, a condition commonly seen in left-sided heart failure. Orthopnea refers to difficulty breathing while lying flat, which is alleviated by elevating the head and upper body with multiple pillows or sleeping in a semi-upright position. Orthopnea occurs due to the redistribution of fluid from the legs and lower body to the lungs when lying down, resulting in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress.
D. The client has a five-pound weight gain:
Weight gain is a common symptom of fluid retention in heart failure; however, a specific weight gain of five pounds alone may not be indicative of left-sided heart failure without considering other clinical signs and symptoms. In heart failure, weight gain is often associated with fluid overload, which can lead to edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and other signs of congestion. It's important to assess the client comprehensively for fluid status, including evaluating for edema, respiratory symptoms, and changes in weight over time, to determine the underlying cause of weight gain.
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