The nurse caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect that the initial treatment would involve:
Enteral nutrition (TPN) to correct nutritional deficits
Small frequent meals
Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
The Correct Answer is D
A. Enteral nutrition (TPN) to correct nutritional deficits. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is only considered in severe cases where oral and IV hydration fail. The initial treatment focuses on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances before considering more invasive nutritional support.
B. Small frequent meals. While small, frequent meals may help manage nausea in mild cases of pregnancy-related nausea and vomiting, they are not sufficient for treating hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves severe, persistent vomiting leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
C. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. Corticosteroids are not the first-line treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum. They may be used in refractory cases where standard treatments fail, but IV fluids and antiemetics are prioritized initially.
D. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The primary concern in hyperemesis gravidarum is severe dehydration and electrolyte disturbances due to excessive vomiting. IV fluids, often with electrolytes and thiamine, are the first step in stabilizing the patient before introducing oral intake.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Contraction frequency of 1 minute. Misoprostol (Cytotec) is used for cervical ripening, but excessive uterine contractions (tachysystole), defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, can lead to fetal distress and uterine rupture. If contractions are occurring every minute, this indicates hyperstimulation, requiring immediate discontinuation of the medication and possible intervention with tocolytics to relax the uterus.
B. Cervix is 50% effaced. Cervical effacement is a normal part of labor progression and does not indicate a need to stop Cytotec treatment. Misoprostol is intended to help soften and ripen the cervix, and 50% effacement suggests the cervix is responding appropriately.
C. Maternal respiratory rate of 24. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is within the upper normal range for pregnancy due to increased metabolic demands. It does not indicate an adverse reaction to misoprostol or warrant discontinuation of treatment.
D. Fetal heart baseline of 150. A fetal heart rate of 150 beats per minute is within the normal range of 110-160 bpm and does not indicate fetal distress. There is no reason to stop Cytotec based on this finding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Uterine prolapse. Uterine prolapse occurs when the uterus descends into or outside the vagina, usually postpartum due to weakened pelvic support. It does not present with sudden, severe pain or fetal heart rate abnormalities during labor.
B. Uterine rupture. A tearing sensation, sudden severe pain, fetal heart rate abnormalities, pallor, and diaphoresis are hallmark signs of uterine rupture. This is a life-threatening emergency where the uterine wall tears, often due to prior cesarean scars, excessive oxytocin use, or grand multiparity. Immediate intervention, including emergency surgery, is required to prevent maternal and fetal death.
C. Precipitous labor. Precipitous labor is rapid labor and delivery within three hours and is not associated with severe, tearing pain. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not typically involve uterine rupture symptoms.
D. Amniotic fluid embolus. An amniotic fluid embolus presents with sudden respiratory distress, hypotension, and cardiovascular collapse due to amniotic fluid entering the maternal circulation. It does not typically cause localized severe abdominal pain or fetal distress due to uterine rupture.
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