During a vaginal delivery the midwife tells you that a shoulder dystocia has occurred. Which of the following initial nursing actions is appropriate at this time?
Apply Oxygen
Increase IV Pitocin
Apply downward pressure on the woman's fundus
Flex the woman's thighs sharply toward her abdomen
The Correct Answer is D
A. Apply oxygen. While oxygen may be administered if fetal distress is present, it does not directly resolve shoulder dystocia, which is a mechanical issue requiring immediate positional maneuvers to free the impacted shoulder.
B. Increase IV Pitocin. Increasing oxytocin (Pitocin) is contraindicated in shoulder dystocia because it can cause stronger contractions, worsening the impaction and increasing the risk of fetal injury or uterine rupture.
C. Apply downward pressure on the woman's fundus. Fundal pressure should never be applied in shoulder dystocia, as it can further wedge the fetal shoulder against the pubic bone, increasing the risk of brachial plexus injury and fetal distress.
D. Flex the woman's thighs sharply toward her abdomen. The McRoberts maneuver, which involves sharply flexing the mother’s thighs to widen the pelvic outlet, is the first-line intervention for shoulder dystocia. This maneuver helps rotate the pelvis and reposition the fetal shoulder, increasing the chances of a successful vaginal delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.
B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.
C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.
D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The type of uterine incision used for the cesarean. This is the most important information because the type of uterine incision determines whether a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) is safe. A low transverse incision is the safest and has the lowest risk of uterine rupture, while a classical (vertical) incision carries a high risk of rupture and contraindicates vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC).
B. The client's blood type and Rh status. While blood type and Rh status are important for managing potential complications such as Rh incompatibility, they do not determine the safety of a VBAC attempt. The uterine incision type is the key factor in assessing the risk of uterine rupture.
C. The client's response to anesthesia used for the last delivery. Although anesthesia history is relevant for planning pain management, it is not the most critical factor in determining whether the patient can safely attempt a vaginal delivery after a prior cesarean.
D. Lab values, especially hemoglobin and hematocrit. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels help assess for anemia or blood loss risk, but they do not affect the safety of a VBAC attempt. The primary concern is uterine integrity, which is determined by the type of previous cesarean incision.
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