A woman comes in to her physician’s office at 16 weeks of pregnancy complaining of headache. On examination her Blood Pressure is 169/94. As the physician looks over her record he notices that she has a prior history of hypertension. He explains to her that she has
Chronic Hypertension
This is a normal Blood Pressure
Preeclampsia
Pregnancy induced hypertension.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Chronic Hypertension. Chronic hypertension is diagnosed when a woman has hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) that was present before pregnancy or develops before 20 weeks gestation. Since this patient has a history of hypertension and is only 16 weeks pregnant, her condition is classified as chronic hypertension rather than pregnancy-related hypertension.
B. This is a normal Blood Pressure. A blood pressure of 169/94 mmHg is not normal. This reading indicates hypertension, which requires monitoring and possible medication adjustments to prevent complications such as preeclampsia or fetal growth restriction.
C. Preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and includes hypertension along with signs of organ dysfunction (e.g., proteinuria, liver abnormalities, or neurological symptoms). Since this patient is only 16 weeks pregnant and does not show other preeclampsia symptoms, this diagnosis is incorrect.
D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension. Pregnancy-induced hypertension, also known as gestational hypertension, develops after 20 weeks gestation in women with previously normal blood pressure. Because this patient has a prior history of hypertension and is only 16 weeks pregnant, her condition is classified as chronic hypertension, not pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
True.
When supporting a woman who has just experienced a fetal demise, it is appropriate and compassionate to:
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Offer supportive care.
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Allow and encourage space and time to grieve.
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Offer the services of a chaplain, especially if the patient expresses a desire for spiritual or emotional support.
Chaplains are typically trained to be non-denominational and sensitive to a wide range of beliefs, and they can provide comforting words and presence regardless of the patient’s faith or lack thereof. This approach aligns with holistic and patient-centered care.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Correct coagulation failure by giving platelets. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolism) can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), but correcting coagulation abnormalities is not the immediate priority. The first intervention should focus on oxygenation and stabilizing the cardiovascular system.
B. Provide emotional support to the woman and her family. While emotional support is important, this is not the priority in a life-threatening emergency. The focus should be on immediate resuscitation efforts to prevent maternal and fetal death.
C. Maintain cardiac output and assess intake & output. Maintaining cardiac output is critical, but this is secondary to oxygenation. The initial response should be administering high-flow oxygen to improve maternal and fetal oxygenation before managing hemodynamic stability.
D. Administer oxygen by tight face mask 8-10L/min. Amniotic fluid embolism causes sudden respiratory distress, hypoxia, and cardiovascular collapse. Immediate high-flow oxygen delivery is the first and most critical intervention to improve oxygenation, support cardiac function, and prevent further complications.
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