A 26-year old having her first baby is 28 weeks pregnant. She experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, soaking one pad. Upon her arrival at the hospital, after placing her on the FHR Monitor, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?
Internal fetal monitoring
Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
Contraction stress test
Ultrasound for placenta location
The Correct Answer is D
A. Internal fetal monitoring. Internal fetal monitoring is contraindicated when placenta previa is suspected because it involves inserting a catheter or electrode into the uterus, which can increase the risk of hemorrhage if the placenta is covering the cervix.
B. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity. While fetal lung maturity assessment may be relevant if early delivery is being considered, it is not an immediate diagnostic procedure for evaluating the cause of vaginal bleeding. The priority is to determine placenta location and rule out placenta previa.
C. Contraction stress test. A contraction stress test evaluates fetal response to contractions but is not the appropriate initial diagnostic test in a patient with vaginal bleeding. Stimulating contractions could worsen bleeding if placenta previa or another placental abnormality is present.
D. Ultrasound for placenta location. The first-line diagnostic test for painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is an ultrasound. It helps determine whether the bleeding is due to placenta previa, a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which requires careful management to prevent complications.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. There is progressive resistance to the effects of insulin. During pregnancy, placental hormones (such as human placental lactogen, estrogen, and progesterone) cause increasing insulin resistance. This ensures that glucose remains available for fetal growth. However, in gestational diabetes, the pancreas cannot compensate with increased insulin production, leading to hyperglycemia.
B. Pregnancy fosters the development of carbohydrate cravings. While some pregnant individuals experience cravings, this is not a defining cause of gestational diabetes. The condition results from hormonal changes leading to insulin resistance, not dietary habits alone.
C. Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first trimester. Gestational diabetes is not caused by a deficiency of insulin (hypoinsulinemia) but by insulin resistance. In fact, insulin production often increases, but it is insufficient to overcome the resistance caused by placental hormones.
D. Glucose levels decrease to accommodate fetal growth. In a normal pregnancy, glucose levels remain stable, and the fetus actively takes glucose from maternal circulation. However, in gestational diabetes, maternal glucose levels rise due to insulin resistance, increasing the risk of fetal overgrowth (macrosomia).
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The type of uterine incision used for the cesarean. This is the most important information because the type of uterine incision determines whether a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) is safe. A low transverse incision is the safest and has the lowest risk of uterine rupture, while a classical (vertical) incision carries a high risk of rupture and contraindicates vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC).
B. The client's blood type and Rh status. While blood type and Rh status are important for managing potential complications such as Rh incompatibility, they do not determine the safety of a VBAC attempt. The uterine incision type is the key factor in assessing the risk of uterine rupture.
C. The client's response to anesthesia used for the last delivery. Although anesthesia history is relevant for planning pain management, it is not the most critical factor in determining whether the patient can safely attempt a vaginal delivery after a prior cesarean.
D. Lab values, especially hemoglobin and hematocrit. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels help assess for anemia or blood loss risk, but they do not affect the safety of a VBAC attempt. The primary concern is uterine integrity, which is determined by the type of previous cesarean incision.
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