The nurse caring for a critically ill client would suspect the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in which of the following situations? The client with:
severe left sided heart failure and resultant pulmonary edema.
acute renal failure associated with pyelonephritis.
a traumatic brain injury with accompanying spinal cord injury.
hypoxemia, refractory to oxygen therapy.
The Correct Answer is D
A) Severe left-sided heart failure and resultant pulmonary edema:
While pulmonary edema due to left-sided heart failure can lead to respiratory distress and hypoxemia, it is not characteristic of ARDS. ARDS is a form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, meaning it is not caused by heart failure. In contrast, pulmonary edema from heart failure is typically related to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Therefore, while this client is at risk for respiratory issues, the cause of their pulmonary edema is distinct from the pathology seen in ARDS.
B) Acute renal failure associated with pyelonephritis:
Acute renal failure from pyelonephritis can lead to various complications, including electrolyte imbalances and fluid overload, which may affect respiratory function. However, renal failure by itself is not a direct cause of ARDS. ARDS is typically associated with an inflammatory response to injury or infection in the lungs, not specifically renal issues. While it’s important to monitor for pulmonary complications in critically ill clients, this situation does not directly suggest ARDS.
C) A traumatic brain injury with accompanying spinal cord injury:
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) with spinal cord injury can lead to respiratory compromise, particularly due to neurological impairment affecting the respiratory muscles or the brain's ability to control breathing. However, ARDS is not the most direct consequence of these injuries. ARDS is primarily caused by acute lung injury from direct or indirect insults to the lungs, such as trauma, pneumonia, or sepsis. Although this combination of injuries may cause respiratory distress, it is not a typical cause of ARDS unless there is another underlying lung injury.
D) Hypoxemia, refractory to oxygen therapy:
This is the hallmark sign of ARDS. ARDS is characterized by the development of acute hypoxemia that is resistant to high levels of supplemental oxygen therapy. This refractory hypoxemia is due to widespread inflammation and damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to impaired gas exchange. In ARDS, the lungs become less compliant, and the ability to oxygenate blood is significantly reduced, even with mechanical ventilation and high levels of oxygen. Therefore, a critically ill client with hypoxemia that does not improve with oxygen therapy would raise suspicion for the development of ARDS.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.
C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.
D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. "How long have you had the pain?"
Asking about the duration of the pain is crucial in assessing a myocardial infarction (MI). The length of time the pain has been occurring can help the nurse determine if the pain is acute or has been ongoing. For instance, chest pain lasting more than 20 minutes or worsening in intensity could indicate an MI. Knowing the timing of the pain also helps establish whether it may be related to acute coronary syndrome (ACS), which requires immediate intervention.
B. "Do you have a history of coronary artery disease?"
While it’s important to understand the patient’s medical history, this question is more secondary during the initial assessment of a client with chest pain. This information is valuable for understanding the risk of cardiovascular events, but it is not the immediate focus when assessing the current pain. The nurse should prioritize questions that address the current symptoms and the characteristics of the pain first.
C. "How would you describe your pain?"
This question is essential to help differentiate the chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction from other causes, such as musculoskeletal pain or gastrointestinal issues. MI pain is typically described as a crushing, pressure-like, or squeezing sensation. Identifying the quality of the pain helps establish whether it’s consistent with a cardiac event. Understanding the description of the pain also provides information about the intensity and potential for myocardial damage.
D. "What were you doing when the pain began?"
This is an important question because activity-related chest pain can help determine the potential cause of the pain. Pain associated with physical exertion or emotional stress may point to an MI or angina. On the other hand, pain unrelated to activity might suggest other causes such as gastrointestinal issues or musculoskeletal pain. Inquiring about the onset of the pain can also provide insight into whether it is associated with physical strain or acute coronary syndrome.
E. "Can you rate your pain on a 0-10 scale?"
Pain assessment using a numeric pain scale (0-10) helps the nurse gauge the severity of the pain and track changes over time. It’s important for determining whether the pain is severe enough to be consistent with an acute myocardial infarction or if it might resolve on its own. This information is vital in deciding the urgency of interventions and treatment decisions.
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