The nurse assesses a boggy uterus with the fundus above the umbilicus and deviated to the side. The nurse should next assess:

Blood pressure

Amount of lochia

Fulness of the bladder

Level of pain

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Fullness of the bladder. A boggy uterus with the fundus above the umbilicus and deviated to the side indicates that the uterus is not contracting properly and may be displaced by a full bladder. A full bladder can interfere with uterine involution and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should assess the bladder and assist the patient to empty it if needed.

Choice A. Blood pressure is not the next assessment because it is not related to the position and tone of the uterus. Blood pressure may be affected by blood loss, but it is not a priority in this situation.

Choice B. Amount of lochia is not the next assessment because it is not related to the position and tone of the uterus. Lochia may be increased or decreased depending on the uterine contraction, but it is not a priority in this situation.

Choice D. Level of pain is not the next assessment because it is not related to the position and tone of the uterus. Pain may be present due to uterine cramping or other factors, but it is not a priority in this situation.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Precipitous birth

This is because precipitous birth, which is defined as a labor that lasts less than three hours from the onset of contractions to delivery, is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This is because the uterus may not contract well after a rapid delivery, leading to uterine atony and bleeding. Other risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include uterine overdistension, oxytocin use, placental abruption, placenta previa, infection, coagulation disorders, and previous history of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice A is not correct because gestational hypertension is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and placental abruption³.

Choice B is not correct because small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that indicates that the baby's growth was restricted in the womb and weighs less than 90% of other babies of the same gestational age. It can be caused by maternal factors, placental factors, or fetal factors⁴.

Choice C is not correct because a two-vessel umbilical cord is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that occurs when the umbilical cord has only one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. It can be associated with congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and stillbirth.

A. Cephalhematoma B. Nevus flammeus C. Molding D. Caput succedaneum

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is because cephalhematoma is a collection of blood under the scalp that does not cross the suture line. It is caused by trauma to the head during delivery, such as from vacuum extraction or forceps. It usually appears within a few hours or days after birth and resolves within weeks or months.

Choice B is not correct because nevus flammeus is a type of birthmark that is also known as port-wine stain. It is a flat, red, or purple patch of skin that can appear anywhere on the body, but often on the face. It is caused by abnormal blood vessels in the skin and does not go away over time³.

Choice C is not correct because the molding is the temporary change in the shape of the head due to pressure during delivery. It does not cause swelling or bruising and usually resolves within a few days.

Choice D is not correct because caput succedaneum is a type of swelling that affects the scalp and crosses the suture line. It is caused by fluid accumulation under the scalp due to pressure during delivery. It usually appears at birth and goes away within a few days.

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The nurse assesses a boggy uterus with the fundus above the umbilicus and deviated to the side. The nurse should next assess:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who experienced a vaginal birth 2 hr ago. The nurse should identify which of the following findings places the client at risk for a postpartum hemorrhage.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is collecting data from a newborn and notes a swollen area on the head that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should interpret this finding as which of the following?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Shortly after delivery, a symptom of respiratory distress in the newborn that should be reported is:

The first sign of hypovolemic shock from postpartum hemorrhage is likely to be:

A nurse is assisting with the care of a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

A woman had a vaginal delivery two days ago and is preparing for discharge. To help prevent postpartum complications, the nurse plans to teach the woman to report any:

A nurse is updating the plan of care for a newborn who is undergoing phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

During a postpartum assessment, a woman reports that her right calf is painful. The nurse observes edema and redness along the saphenous vein in the right lower leg. Based on this finding, the nurse explains that the probable treatment will involve:

The nurse is conducting a prenatal class explaining the various activities that will occur within the first few hours after birth. The nurse determines the session is successful when the couples correctly choose which reason for the use of an antibiotic ointment.

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hr postpartum. The nurse finds a small amount of lochia rubra on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?