The nurse assesses a boggy uterus with the fundus above the umbilicus and deviated to the side. The nurse should next assess:
Blood pressure
Amount of lochia
Fulness of the bladder
Level of pain
The Correct Answer is C
Fullness of the bladder. A boggy uterus with the fundus above the umbilicus and deviated to the side indicates that the uterus is not contracting properly and may be displaced by a full bladder. A full bladder can interfere with uterine involution and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should assess the bladder and assist the patient to empty it if needed.
Choice A. Blood pressure is not the next assessment because it is not related to the position and tone of the uterus. Blood pressure may be affected by blood loss, but it is not a priority in this situation.
Choice B. Amount of lochia is not the next assessment because it is not related to the position and tone of the uterus. Lochia may be increased or decreased depending on the uterine contraction, but it is not a priority in this situation.
Choice D. Level of pain is not the next assessment because it is not related to the position and tone of the uterus. Pain may be present due to uterine cramping or other factors, but it is not a priority in this situation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Precipitous birth
This is because precipitous birth, which is defined as a labor that lasts less than three hours from the onset of contractions to delivery, is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This is because the uterus may not contract well after a rapid delivery, leading to uterine atony and bleeding. Other risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include uterine overdistension, oxytocin use, placental abruption, placenta previa, infection, coagulation disorders, and previous history of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice A is not correct because gestational hypertension is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and placental abruption³.
Choice B is not correct because small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that indicates that the baby's growth was restricted in the womb and weighs less than 90% of other babies of the same gestational age. It can be caused by maternal factors, placental factors, or fetal factors⁴.
Choice C is not correct because a two-vessel umbilical cord is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that occurs when the umbilical cord has only one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. It can be associated with congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and stillbirth.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because cephalhematoma is a collection of blood under the scalp that does not cross the suture line. It is caused by trauma to the head during delivery, such as from vacuum extraction or forceps. It usually appears within a few hours or days after birth and resolves within weeks or months.
Choice B is not correct because nevus flammeus is a type of birthmark that is also known as port-wine stain. It is a flat, red, or purple patch of skin that can appear anywhere on the body, but often on the face. It is caused by abnormal blood vessels in the skin and does not go away over time³.
Choice C is not correct because the molding is the temporary change in the shape of the head due to pressure during delivery. It does not cause swelling or bruising and usually resolves within a few days.
Choice D is not correct because caput succedaneum is a type of swelling that affects the scalp and crosses the suture line. It is caused by fluid accumulation under the scalp due to pressure during delivery. It usually appears at birth and goes away within a few days.
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