The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol’s solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications?

Schedule both medications at bedtime.

Administer iodine one hour before PTU.

Give parental dose once every 24 hours.

Offer both drugs together with a meal.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Schedule both medications at bedtime:
Administering both medications at bedtime may not be the most appropriate schedule. PTU is typically administered multiple times a day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels in the bloodstream. Additionally, administering Lugol’s solution at bedtime may not provide sufficient time for the iodine to take effect before the PTU.

B) Administer iodine one hour before PTU:
This option is correct. Lugol’s solution, a strong iodine solution, is often given before antithyroid medications such as PTU or methimazole to temporarily block thyroid hormone production. Administering iodine about one hour before PTU allows the iodine to be taken up by the thyroid gland, effectively reducing thyroid hormone synthesis before the PTU starts to inhibit the conversion of T4 to T3.

C) Give parental dose once every 24 hours:
This option does not address the timing of administration between PTU and Lugol’s solution. While it may be correct for the dosing frequency of PTU, it does not specify when to administer Lugol’s solution in relation to PTU.

D) Offer both drugs together with a meal:
Administering both drugs together with a meal may not be appropriate, especially considering that Lugol’s solution needs to be absorbed into the bloodstream to exert its effect on the thyroid gland. Administering Lugol’s solution and PTU together may not allow adequate time for the iodine to take effect before the PTU starts to inhibit thyroid hormone production.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Urinary output equal intake:
This assessment finding suggests that the client is voiding an amount of urine equivalent to their fluid intake, indicating effective bladder emptying. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction, helping to improve urinary retention by promoting the expulsion of urine from the bladder. Equal urinary output and intake indicate that the bladder is adequately emptying, which is a positive response to bethanechol therapy.

B) No terminal urinary dribbling:
While the absence of terminal urinary dribbling may be an indicator of improved bladder emptying, it is not as definitive as assessing urinary output equal to intake. Terminal urinary dribbling refers to the involuntary loss of urine that occurs after completing urination due to incomplete emptying of the bladder. While its absence may suggest improved bladder emptying, it is not as reliable an indicator as measuring urinary output.

C) Denies stress incontinence:
The absence of stress incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting), is not directly related to the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention. Bethanechol primarily targets urinary retention by stimulating bladder contraction rather than addressing stress incontinence, which involves weakness of the pelvic floor muscles.

D) Absence of xerostomia:
Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth due to decreased saliva production and is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. Bethanechol, as a cholinergic agonist, may actually increase saliva production and is not typically associated with xerostomia. However, the absence of xerostomia does not directly indicate the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention.

A. Serum ammonia level of 30 pg/dl (17.62 μmol /dL). B. Serum glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). C. Serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L). D. Hemoglobin level of 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L).

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Serum ammonia level of 30 pg/dl (17.62 μmol /dL): Serum ammonia level is not directly affected by sodium polystyrene sulfonate administration. Ammonia levels are typically related to liver function and are not relevant in assessing the effectiveness of this medication for hyperkalemia.
B) Serum glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L): Serum glucose level is unrelated to the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate. While hyperkalemia can sometimes lead to glucose metabolism abnormalities, the glucose level alone does not provide information about the medication's effectiveness.
C) Serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L): Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, also known as Kayexalate, is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium excretion through feces. A decrease in serum potassium level within the normal range indicates that the medication has been effective in lowering potassium levels, which is the intended therapeutic outcome in the context of treating hyperkalemia associated with acute kidney injury (AKI).
D) Hemoglobin level of 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L): Hemoglobin level is unrelated to the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells and is not directly influenced by potassium-lowering medications.

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The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol’s solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the prescription bethanechol is effective for a client diagnosed with urinary retention?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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