The healthcare provider prescribed octreotide 150 mcg/day subcutaneously for a client with dumping syndrome. The medication is available in 0.2 mg/mL vials. How many mL should the practical nurse (PN) administer? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest hundredth).
The Correct Answer is ["0.75"]
To calculate the amount of mL to administer, the PN should use the following formula:
mL = (mcg x 1 mg/1000 mcg) / (mg/mL)
Plugging in the given values, we get:
mL = (150 x 1/1000) / (0.2)
mL = 0.15 / 0.2
mL = 0.75
Therefore, the PN should administer 0.75 mL of octreotide subcutaneously.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Measure the next voiding, then palpate the client's bladder.
Choice A rationale:
Catheterizing the client for residual urine volume is not necessary at this point because the woman has recently given birth, and frequent urination is common during the postpartum period. Additionally, catheterization poses risks of infection, so it should be reserved for situations where it is clinically indicated.
Choice B rationale:
Evaluating for normal involution and massaging the fundus is not relevant in this context. Fundal massage is performed after childbirth to ensure the uterus contracts and prevents excessive bleeding. The woman's concern is about frequent urination, which does not require fundal massage.
Choice C rationale:
Measuring the next voiding and palpating the client's bladder is the most appropriate action. The woman's increased frequency of urination could be due to postpartum diuresis, a normal physiological process where the body eliminates excess fluid accumulated during pregnancy. By measuring the next voiding and palpating the bladder, the nurse can assess for bladder distension or retention, which could be signs of a problem.
Choice D rationale:
Obtaining a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity is not indicated in this situation. There is no evidence to suggest that the woman has a urinary tract infection or other urinary issues that would warrant a urine culture at this time.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccination is recommended for adults aged 60 years and older, regardless of whether they have had shingles or chicken pox before. The vaccine can reduce the risk of developing shingles and its complications, such as postherpetic neuralgia.
The other options are not correct because:
A. The vaccine is useful even if the person has had a case of shingles before, as shingles can recur in some people. The vaccine can prevent or reduce the severity of future episodes.
C. The person needs to get this vaccination even if they have had chickenpox, as shingles are caused by the reactivation of the same virus that causes chickenpox (varicella-zoster virus). The vaccine can boost the immunity against the virus and prevent it from reactivating.
D. The vaccination does not minimize outbreaks of cold sores, as cold sores are caused by a different virus (herpes simplex virus). The vaccine has no effect on this virus or its symptoms.
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