The healthcare provider prescribed octreotide 150 mcg/day subcutaneously for a client with dumping syndrome. The medication is available in 0.2 mg/mL vials. How many mL should the practical nurse (PN) administer? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest hundredth).
The Correct Answer is ["0.75"]
To calculate the amount of mL to administer, the PN should use the following formula:
mL = (mcg x 1 mg/1000 mcg) / (mg/mL)
Plugging in the given values, we get:
mL = (150 x 1/1000) / (0.2)
mL = 0.15 / 0.2
mL = 0.75
Therefore, the PN should administer 0.75 mL of octreotide subcutaneously.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choiceB. Remove the warm compress.
Choice A rationale:
Turning the lights on in the room would likely exacerbate the resident’s photophobia (sensitivity to light), causing more discomfort.Photophobia is a common symptom of bacterial conjunctivitis, and keeping the room dim can help alleviate this discomfort.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the warm compress is the correct action. Warm compresses can sometimes be used to relieve symptoms of conjunctivitis, but they are generally more appropriate for viral or allergic conjunctivitis.In the case of bacterial conjunctivitis, warm compresses can potentially worsen the infection by providing a warm, moist environment that promotes bacterial growth.Instead, a cool compress is often recommended to reduce inflammation and discomfort.
Choice C rationale:
Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce swelling and promote drainage, but it is not directly related to the immediate relief of eye pain and photophobia in bacterial conjunctivitis.This action might be more relevant for conditions involving fluid retention or respiratory issues.
Choice D rationale:
Offering an oral analgesic could help manage the resident’s pain, but it does not address the underlying issue of the warm compress potentially worsening the bacterial infection.Pain management is important, but it should be combined with appropriate measures to treat the infection and alleviate symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccination is recommended for adults aged 60 years and older, regardless of whether they have had shingles or chicken pox before. The vaccine can reduce the risk of developing shingles and its complications, such as postherpetic neuralgia.
The other options are not correct because:
A. The vaccine is useful even if the person has had a case of shingles before, as shingles can recur in some people. The vaccine can prevent or reduce the severity of future episodes.
C. The person needs to get this vaccination even if they have had chickenpox, as shingles are caused by the reactivation of the same virus that causes chickenpox (varicella-zoster virus). The vaccine can boost the immunity against the virus and prevent it from reactivating.
D. The vaccination does not minimize outbreaks of cold sores, as cold sores are caused by a different virus (herpes simplex virus). The vaccine has no effect on this virus or its symptoms.
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