The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes diazepam 8 mg IM every 4 hours PRN for muscle spasms for a client with a fractured femur. The available vial is labeled "Diazepam Injection, USP 10 mg/2 mL." How many mL should the nurse administer to the client?
(Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
The Correct Answer is ["1.6"]
Calculations
Step 1: Identify the prescribed dose.
- Prescribed dose = 8 mg
Step 2: Identify the concentration of the vial.
- Concentration = 10 mg per 2 mL
Step 3: Calculate the mL per mg.
- 2 mL ÷ 10 mg = 0.2 mL per 1 mg
Step 4: Calculate the required volume to administer.
- 8 mg × 0.2 mL/mg = 1.6 mL
Result
- The nurse should administer 1.6 mL to the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Distinguishing the difference between herpes varicella and herpes zoster is important for client education. Herpes varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles) are caused by the same virus, the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve tissues and can reactivate years later as shingles. Educating the client about the relationship between these two conditions helps in understanding the risk and nature of shingles.
Choice B reason: Explaining that the risk of developing shingles decreases with age is incorrect. In fact, the risk of developing shingles increases with age, especially in individuals over 50. The immune system's ability to keep the varicella-zoster virus dormant decreases with age, leading to a higher likelihood of reactivation as shingles. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate for client education.
Choice C reason: Affirming that a person with shingles has a history of chickenpox infection is accurate. Shingles occurs when the dormant varicella-zoster virus reactivates in someone who has previously had chickenpox. This information helps the client understand the connection between past chickenpox infection and the potential for developing shingles.
Choice D reason: Asking the client to describe the type of shingles that her brother has is not relevant to the client's own risk or education about shingles. The focus should be on providing accurate information about shingles and its relation to chickenpox, not on the details of another person's condition.
Choice E reason: Instructing the client to report the development of fatigue and low-grade fever is important because these can be early symptoms of shingles. Early identification and treatment of shingles can help manage symptoms and reduce complications. Educating the client on what to watch for and when to seek medical attention is crucial for effective management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A fasting serum glucose level of 140 mg/dL (7.77 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is elevated but not an immediate life-threatening complication. It suggests poor blood glucose control but does not directly indicate a complication specific to type 2 diabetes and hypertension. This value should prompt further evaluation and adjustments in diabetes management, but it is not as critical as other potential findings.
Choice B reason: A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) level of 6.9% is within the range of good diabetic control. While it indicates the client has been managing their blood glucose levels relatively well over the past few months, it does not suggest a current complication. This value is used to assess long-term glucose control rather than acute issues.
Choice C reason: A serum creatinine level of 1.6 mg/dL (141.44 umol/L) is elevated and indicates impaired kidney function. Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension are at increased risk for kidney disease, known as diabetic nephropathy or hypertensive nephropathy. Elevated creatinine levels suggest that the kidneys are not filtering waste products effectively, which is a significant complication that requires immediate attention and intervention.
Choice D reason: A white blood cell (WBC) count of 11,000/mm3 (11 x 10^9/L) is slightly elevated and may suggest an infection or inflammation. However, it is not a specific complication related to type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Elevated WBC counts warrant further investigation to identify any underlying infection or inflammatory process, but it is not as directly related to diabetic or hypertensive complications as elevated serum creatinine.
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