A client reports to the nurse of recently visiting someone who has a shingles infection. The client believes that having had chickenpox as a child will be protective against shingles. How should the nurse respond? Select all that apply.
Distinguish the difference between herpes varicella and herpes zoster.
Explain that the risk of developing shingles decreases with age.
Affirm that a person with shingles has a history of chickenpox infection.
Ask the client to describe the type of shingles that her brother has.
Instruct client to report the development of fatigue and low-grade fever.
Correct Answer : A,C,E
Choice A reason: Distinguishing the difference between herpes varicella and herpes zoster is important for client education. Herpes varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles) are caused by the same virus, the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve tissues and can reactivate years later as shingles. Educating the client about the relationship between these two conditions helps in understanding the risk and nature of shingles.
Choice B reason: Explaining that the risk of developing shingles decreases with age is incorrect. In fact, the risk of developing shingles increases with age, especially in individuals over 50. The immune system's ability to keep the varicella-zoster virus dormant decreases with age, leading to a higher likelihood of reactivation as shingles. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate for client education.
Choice C reason: Affirming that a person with shingles has a history of chickenpox infection is accurate. Shingles occurs when the dormant varicella-zoster virus reactivates in someone who has previously had chickenpox. This information helps the client understand the connection between past chickenpox infection and the potential for developing shingles.
Choice D reason: Asking the client to describe the type of shingles that her brother has is not relevant to the client's own risk or education about shingles. The focus should be on providing accurate information about shingles and its relation to chickenpox, not on the details of another person's condition.
Choice E reason: Instructing the client to report the development of fatigue and low-grade fever is important because these can be early symptoms of shingles. Early identification and treatment of shingles can help manage symptoms and reduce complications. Educating the client on what to watch for and when to seek medical attention is crucial for effective management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), commonly known as a stroke, occurs when the blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, preventing brain tissue from getting oxygen and nutrients. Although a severe headache might be a symptom of a stroke, it does not typically present with fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash, which are more indicative of an infection or inflammatory process.
Choice B reason: Meningococcal meningitis is a bacterial infection that causes inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Symptoms often include a severe headache, fever, neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity), and a petechial rash, which is a distinguishing feature. This condition is a medical emergency and requires prompt antibiotic treatment to prevent serious complications or death.
Choice C reason: Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding within the brain tissue itself, which can be caused by various factors such as hypertension, aneurysms, or trauma. While it can cause a severe headache and neurological symptoms, it does not typically present with fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash, which suggest an infectious etiology rather than a hemorrhagic one.
Choice D reason: Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a tick-borne illness caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii. It can present with fever, headache, and a rash, but the rash is typically more generalized and not petechial. Additionally, the presence of nuchal rigidity and severe headache are more characteristic of meningitis rather than Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Preparing the prescribed dose of rapid-acting insulin from the sliding scale instructions is not appropriate when the client's blood glucose level is low (56 mg/dL). Administering insulin at this point could further lower the blood glucose level, potentially leading to severe hypoglycemia. The priority is to raise the client's blood glucose level to a safe range.
Choice B reason: Giving the client six ounces of non-diet carbonated soda and instructing the client to drink it entirely is the correct first intervention. The client’s blood glucose level is significantly below the normal reference range (hypoglycemia). Administering a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as non-diet soda, helps to quickly increase the blood glucose level to a safer range. This intervention addresses the immediate need to correct the hypoglycemia and prevent potential complications such as confusion, seizures, or loss of consciousness.
Choice C reason: Collecting a blood specimen by venipuncture to send to the laboratory for serum glucose analysis is not the first intervention to implement. While laboratory confirmation of blood glucose levels can be important, the immediate priority is to treat the hypoglycemia. Delaying treatment to collect a laboratory specimen could result in worsening of the client's condition. Immediate administration of a fast-acting carbohydrate should be prioritized.
Choice D reason: Documenting the glucose reading in the electronic medical record (EMR) is important but not the first priority. While accurate documentation is necessary for ongoing care, the immediate intervention should focus on treating the hypoglycemia. Once the client's blood glucose level has been stabilized, the nurse can then document the reading and subsequent interventions in the EMR.
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