A client reports to the nurse of recently visiting someone who has a shingles infection. The client believes that having had chickenpox as a child will be protective against shingles. How should the nurse respond? Select all that apply.

Distinguish the difference between herpes varicella and herpes zoster.

Explain that the risk of developing shingles decreases with age.

Affirm that a person with shingles has a history of chickenpox infection.

Ask the client to describe the type of shingles that her brother has.

Instruct client to report the development of fatigue and low-grade fever.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,E

Choice A reason: Distinguishing the difference between herpes varicella and herpes zoster is important for client education. Herpes varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles) are caused by the same virus, the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve tissues and can reactivate years later as shingles. Educating the client about the relationship between these two conditions helps in understanding the risk and nature of shingles.

Choice B reason: Explaining that the risk of developing shingles decreases with age is incorrect. In fact, the risk of developing shingles increases with age, especially in individuals over 50. The immune system's ability to keep the varicella-zoster virus dormant decreases with age, leading to a higher likelihood of reactivation as shingles. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate for client education.

Choice C reason: Affirming that a person with shingles has a history of chickenpox infection is accurate. Shingles occurs when the dormant varicella-zoster virus reactivates in someone who has previously had chickenpox. This information helps the client understand the connection between past chickenpox infection and the potential for developing shingles.

Choice D reason: Asking the client to describe the type of shingles that her brother has is not relevant to the client's own risk or education about shingles. The focus should be on providing accurate information about shingles and its relation to chickenpox, not on the details of another person's condition.

Choice E reason: Instructing the client to report the development of fatigue and low-grade fever is important because these can be early symptoms of shingles. Early identification and treatment of shingles can help manage symptoms and reduce complications. Educating the client on what to watch for and when to seek medical attention is crucial for effective management.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering medications as prescribed is a critical intervention for this client experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. The prescribed medications, including albuterol and ipratropium bromide via nebulizer, act to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow. Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, works by relaxing smooth muscles in the airway, while ipratropium, an anticholinergic, reduces mucus production and further enhances bronchodilation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, reduces airway inflammation and prevents progression of the attack. Administering these medications promptly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of the asthma attack, improves oxygenation, and reduces the risk of complications like hypoxemia or respiratory failure. This is an essential and time-sensitive step in the client’s care.

Choice B reason: Providing client teaching is essential to address both immediate and long-term care needs. Education should focus on the correct use of inhalers, the importance of monitoring expiration dates, and adherence to prescribed medications. The nurse should explain proper inhalation techniques, the role of maintenance medications in preventing exacerbations, and the importance of identifying and avoiding triggers such as outdoor allergens and exercise without premedication. Additionally, discussing early signs of asthma worsening and when to seek medical attention can empower the client to better manage their condition and prevent severe exacerbations in the future. This intervention ensures the client has the tools to reduce recurrence and improve quality of life.

Choice C reason: Notifying the healthcare provider of the client's need for intubation is unnecessary at this stage based on the assessment data. While the client is in respiratory distress, indicated by increased respiratory rate and low oxygen saturation, they remain alert and responsive, with expiratory wheezes present—a sign that air is moving through the lungs. Intubation is reserved for clients in severe respiratory failure who are unable to maintain oxygenation or ventilation despite aggressive interventions. Administering nebulized medications and corticosteroids should stabilize the client and resolve the acute symptoms, making this action premature and inappropriate.

Choice D reason: Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is contraindicated in asthma management and respiratory distress. The Trendelenburg position involves lowering the head of the bed and elevating the feet, which could worsen breathing by increasing pressure on the diaphragm, reducing lung expansion, and exacerbating hypoxemia. The preferred position for clients in respiratory distress is a high Fowler’s position, which promotes optimal lung expansion and improves oxygenation. The Trendelenburg position is used for specific conditions like shock or hypotension but has no role in managing asthma exacerbations.

Choice E reason: Asking the client for a list of current medications is a vital step in obtaining an accurate medication history and identifying potential factors contributing to the asthma exacerbation. An expired rescue inhaler suggests possible gaps in medication adherence or management. Understanding the client’s current medications, including any maintenance inhalers or allergy treatments, helps the healthcare team adjust the treatment plan effectively. Additionally, this step ensures that new prescriptions do not conflict with existing medications, reducing the risk of adverse interactions. It also highlights any missed preventive measures, such as maintenance therapy with inhaled corticosteroids, which can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma attacks.

Correct Answer is ["56"]

Explanation

Step-by-Step Calculation:

Step 1: Convert liters to milliliters (mL) 2 liters × 1000 mL per liter = 2000 mL

Step 2: Calculate the total number of drops to be infused 2000 mL × 20 gtt per mL = 40000 gtt

Step 3: Convert hours to minutes 12 hours × 60 minutes per hour = 720 minutes

Step 4: Calculate the drops per minute 40000 gtt ÷ 720 minutes = 55.56

Step 5: Round to the nearest whole number 56 gtt/min

Answer: 56 gtt/min

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A client reports to the nurse of recently visiting someone who has a shingles infection. The client believes that having had chickenpox as a child will be protective against shingles. How should the nurse respond? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exhibits The nurse has identified the priority problem for the client and now needs to determine proper care interventions. Based on the client's history and assessment data, which actions should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A client receives a prescription for 2 liters of lactated Ringer's IV to be infused over 12 hours. The IV administration set delivers 20 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

Correct Answer is ["56"]

Explanation

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