The client hospitalized with infective endocarditis develops sharp flank pain and hematuria. The nurse notifies the physician, recognizing that these clinical manifestations may indicate:
vegetative embolization to the kidneys.
hemolysis of red blood cells by hemolytic microorganisms.
septicemia resulting in decreased glomerular blood flow.
bacterial infection in the kidneys.
The Correct Answer is A
A. vegetative embolization to the kidneys: Infective endocarditis is an infection of the heart valves or the endocardium. Vegetations (clumps of bacteria, fibrin, and platelets) can form on the damaged heart structures. These vegetations are fragile and can break off, forming emboli that travel through the bloodstream to various organs. Embolization to the kidneys can cause renal infarction, leading to sharp flank pain due to ischemia or infarction of kidney tissue and hematuria.
B. hemolysis of red blood cells by hemolytic microorganisms: While some bacteria can cause hemolysis, it is not typically associated with localized flank pain. Hemolysis would present with systemic signs such as jaundice, fatigue, and anemia, not acute flank pain and visible hematuria.
C. septicemia resulting in decreased glomerular blood flow: Septicemia may impair renal perfusion over time but would more likely lead to generalized signs of acute kidney injury, such as oliguria and rising creatinine levels, rather than acute flank pain and hematuria.
D. bacterial infection in the kidneys: Acute pyelonephritis can cause flank pain and hematuria, but in the context of infective endocarditis, embolic events are a more likely and urgent explanation for new-onset symptoms, particularly sharp localized pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Maintain the infusion because the client had a cardiac arrest: While epinephrine is essential during cardiac arrest, continuing a high-dose infusion post-resuscitation without reassessment may lead to complications like tachycardia, hypertension, and increased myocardial oxygen demand.
B. Continue to monitor the client's rhythm closely: Ongoing monitoring is important, but it is a passive intervention. The heart rate of 120 bpm may reflect excessive adrenergic stimulation from epinephrine, and further action is needed to prevent deterioration.
C. Suggest that the client's medication be changed to norepinephrine: Norepinephrine is another vasopressor that has less of a beta-1 adrenergic effect compared to epinephrine. It is primarily used for hypotension and septic shock, not as a direct substitute for epinephrine post-cardiac arrest. Changing to another vasopressor without indication is not the best initial step.
D. Ask the physician if the dose can be decreased: A heart rate of 120 bpm may indicate that the epinephrine dose is too high, causing sympathetic overstimulation. Prolonged or excessive tachycardia increases myocardial oxygen demand, which can be detrimental, especially in a post-arrest heart. Decreasing the dose can help prevent arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia, making this the most appropriate and proactive action.
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
Volume ordered is 1 L.
Convert the total volume to milliliters (mL)
1 L = 1000 mL.
Total volume in mL = 1 L × 1000 mL/L = 1000 mL
Total infusion time = 5 hours
Calculate the infusion rate in milliliters per hour (mL/hr).
Infusion rate (mL/hr) = Total volume (mL) / Total infusion time (hours)
= 1000 mL / 5 hours
= 200
The appropriate setting is 200 mL/hr.
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