The client hospitalized with infective endocarditis develops sharp flank pain and hematuria. The nurse notifies the physician, recognizing that these clinical manifestations may indicate:

vegetative embolization to the kidneys.

hemolysis of red blood cells by hemolytic microorganisms.

septicemia resulting in decreased glomerular blood flow.

bacterial infection in the kidneys.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. vegetative embolization to the kidneys: Infective endocarditis is an infection of the heart valves or the endocardium. Vegetations (clumps of bacteria, fibrin, and platelets) can form on the damaged heart structures. These vegetations are fragile and can break off, forming emboli that travel through the bloodstream to various organs. Embolization to the kidneys can cause renal infarction, leading to sharp flank pain due to ischemia or infarction of kidney tissue and hematuria.

B. hemolysis of red blood cells by hemolytic microorganisms: While some bacteria can cause hemolysis, it is not typically associated with localized flank pain. Hemolysis would present with systemic signs such as jaundice, fatigue, and anemia, not acute flank pain and visible hematuria.

C. septicemia resulting in decreased glomerular blood flow: Septicemia may impair renal perfusion over time but would more likely lead to generalized signs of acute kidney injury, such as oliguria and rising creatinine levels, rather than acute flank pain and hematuria.

D. bacterial infection in the kidneys: Acute pyelonephritis can cause flank pain and hematuria, but in the context of infective endocarditis, embolic events are a more likely and urgent explanation for new-onset symptoms, particularly sharp localized pain.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Radiofrequency ablation: This is used to treat tachyarrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The ECG shown does not demonstrate any tachycardic rhythm rather, it shows a bradyarrhythmia with dropped QRS complexes, which suggests a conduction block, not a reentrant circuit.

B. Administration of amiodarone: Amiodarone is primarily used for ventricular arrhythmias or atrial fibrillation. It is not effective in treating bradyarrhythmias or heart blocks such as those seen in this rhythm strip.

C. Insertion of a pacemaker: The rhythm strip shows intermittent dropped QRS complexes with consistent P waves—this is indicative of second-degree AV block, Mobitz II. This type of conduction block can progress to complete heart block and is often treated with the insertion of a permanent pacemaker to maintain cardiac output.

D. Administration of adenosine: Adenosine is used to terminate SVT by temporarily blocking AV node conduction. It is contraindicated in heart blocks, especially Mobitz II or third-degree AV block, because it can worsen the block and cause asystole.

A. Maintain the infusion because the client had a cardiac arrest. B. Continue to monitor the client's rhythm closely. C. Suggest that the client's medication be changed to norepinephrine. D. Ask the physician if the dose can be decreased.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Maintain the infusion because the client had a cardiac arrest: While epinephrine is essential during cardiac arrest, continuing a high-dose infusion post-resuscitation without reassessment may lead to complications like tachycardia, hypertension, and increased myocardial oxygen demand.

B. Continue to monitor the client's rhythm closely: Ongoing monitoring is important, but it is a passive intervention. The heart rate of 120 bpm may reflect excessive adrenergic stimulation from epinephrine, and further action is needed to prevent deterioration.

C. Suggest that the client's medication be changed to norepinephrine: Norepinephrine is another vasopressor that has less of a beta-1 adrenergic effect compared to epinephrine. It is primarily used for hypotension and septic shock, not as a direct substitute for epinephrine post-cardiac arrest. Changing to another vasopressor without indication is not the best initial step.

D. Ask the physician if the dose can be decreased: A heart rate of 120 bpm may indicate that the epinephrine dose is too high, causing sympathetic overstimulation. Prolonged or excessive tachycardia increases myocardial oxygen demand, which can be detrimental, especially in a post-arrest heart. Decreasing the dose can help prevent arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia, making this the most appropriate and proactive action.

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The client hospitalized with infective endocarditis develops sharp flank pain and hematuria. The nurse notifies the physician, recognizing that these clinical manifestations may indicate:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse identifies the following rhythm on the cardiac monitor. Which treatment modality will the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who has been successfully resuscitated following a cardiac arrest and is now on an IV infusion of epinephrine. The cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 120 beats/minute. What should be the nurse's best action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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