partner have been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. The client's medical history is significant for diabetes migraine headaches, fibromyalgia, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which reason is most likely causing the client's infertility?

Tubal damage from hyperglycemia.

Tubal damage from migraine headaches.

Tubal damage from fibromyalgia

Tubal damage from PID.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Tubal damage from hyperglycemia: Hyperglycemia, often seen in diabetes, can affect reproductive health but is more commonly associated with issues like poor implantation or uterine environment rather than direct tubal damage.

B. Tubal damage from migraine headaches: Migraine headaches do not cause direct tubal damage or infertility. They may impact overall health and stress levels but are not linked to structural damage in the reproductive tract.

C. Tubal damage from fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition causing widespread pain and fatigue but does not directly cause tubal damage.

D. Tubal damage from PID: Pelvic inflammatory disease is a leading cause of infertility due to the inflammation and scarring it can cause in the fallopian tubes, which can block or damage them, preventing fertilization.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. 2300 calories is insufficient for breastfeeding. An additional 500 calories is needed for milk production.

B. The recommended caloric intake for breastfeeding women is typically an additional 500 calories per day above their pre-pregnancy caloric intake. So, for this woman, it would be 2500 calories (2000 + 500).

C. 2750 calories is more than the typical recommendation.

D. 3000 calories is higher than the typical recommendation for most breastfeeding women.

A. if positive at birth the patient should have a C-Section to prevent passing it on to the fetus. B. There is often a small sore on the penis or labia that can last up to two weeks C. Gonorrhea is treated with antifungal medication. D. Vaginal discharge will have a fishy odor. E. This is an STD responsible for ophthalmia neonatorum in babies so they are required to be treated with erythromycin. F. it can present as a yellow or greenish discharge from the penis

Correct Answer is ["E","F"]

Explanation

A. A C-section is not routinely indicated for gonorrhea unless there are active lesions. It is treated with antibiotics, and the baby is given prophylactic erythromycin to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum.

B. Gonorrhea typically does not present with a small sore; this description is more typical of herpes simplex virus.

C. Gonorrhea is treated with antibiotics (e.g., ceftriaxone), not antifungal medications.

D. Vaginal discharge from gonorrhea is typically yellow or greenish and purulent, not fishy in odor (which is typical of bacterial vaginosis).

E. Gonorrhea can cause ophthalmia neonatorum, and newborns are treated with erythromycin to prevent this.

F. Gonorrhea often causes a yellow or greenish discharge from the penis, a common symptom in men.

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partner have been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. The client's medical history is significant for diabetes migraine headaches, fibromyalgia, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which reason is most likely causing the client's infertility?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman had a recommended caloric intake of 2000 calories per day before becoming pregnant. She delivers and is breastfeeding. How many calories per day is recommended for her now?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient comes to the clinic to be tested for Gonorrhea. Which of the following is true of this particular STD? Select all that apply

Correct Answer is ["E","F"]

Explanation

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