Select the four criteria below that would indicate a category 3 fetal monitor strip.
Tachysystole
Tachycardia with minimal variability
Late decelerations with absent variability
Sinusoidal Pattern
Absent variability with no periodic changes
Bradycardia with absent variability
Late decelerations with moderate variability
Variable decelerations with absent variability
Correct Answer : A,C,D,F
A. Tachysystole refers to excessive uterine contractions, which can cause fetal distress and indicates a category 3 strip.
B. Tachycardia with minimal variability does not qualify as a category 3 pattern; it is concerning but not as severe as category 3.
C. Late decelerations with absent variability are highly concerning for fetal compromise, making the strip category 3.
D. A sinusoidal pattern indicates severe fetal distress and categorizes the strip as category 3.
E. Absent variability with no periodic changes may suggest a non-reassuring pattern but is not categorized as a category 3 strip unless other signs of fetal distress are present.
F. Bradycardia with absent variability is another critical pattern, indicating poor fetal oxygenation and requiring intervention, categorizing it as a category 3 strip.
G. Late decelerations with moderate variability indicate a category 2 strip, not category 3.
H. Variable decelerations with absent variability can be concerning, but it doesn't automatically classify as category 3 without further complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. May 1 is not correct; this would be too early by several months.
B. July 8 is not correct; this date is too far out for the due date based on the LMP provided.
C. To calculate the due date using Naegele's rule, you add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) and then subtract 3 months. Given: LMP: April 15th Step 1: Add 7 days to the LMP: April15th + 7 days= April 22nd Step 2: Subtract 3 months: April22nd – 3 months = January 22nd
D. January 22 is close but not the correct date by the standard calculation of 280 days.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Ignoring the mood swings is not an appropriate response because it may be a sign of postpartum mood changes that need to be monitored.
B. Mood swings in the postpartum period are common and often due to hormonal changes. This is normal unless it persists beyond two weeks, at which point it may indicate postpartum depression.
C. Suggesting antidepressants immediately is premature; mood swings are common in the postpartum period, and treatment is not necessary unless they persist or worsen.
D. Advising the husband to leave the wife unattended is unsafe and inappropriate. Ensuring the wife has support during this time is important.
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