On the first day after a cesarean section, a client who is a primipara is being assisted to the bathroom for the first time.
The client experiences a sudden gush of vaginal blood and notices that several blood clots are in the toilet. Which action should the practical nurse (PN) take?
Insert an indwelling catheter to empty the bladder and contract the fundus
Check fundal consistency and continue to monitor the lochial flow amount
Return the client to bed and maintain bedrest until the lochial flow slows
Massage the fundus and avoid direct pressure on the cesarean incision
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer and explanation is:
d) Massage the fundus and avoid direct pressure on the cesarean incision.
This is the best action to take for a client who experiences a sudden gush of vaginal blood and clots after a
cesarean section. Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.
Avoiding direct pressure on the incision prevents pain and wound dehiscence.
a) Insert an indwelling catheter to empty the bladder and contract the fundus.
This is not the first action to take for a client who experiences a sudden gush of vaginal blood and clots after a cesarean section. Inserting an indwelling catheter requires a physician's order and may cause discomfort and infection. The client may already have a catheter in place after the surgery.
b) Check fundal consistency and continue to monitor the lochial flow amount.
This is not enough to do for a client who experiences a sudden gush of vaginal blood and clots after a cesarean section. Checking fundal consistency and monitoring lochial flow are important, but they do not address the cause of bleeding or prevent further blood loss.
c) Return the client to bed and maintain bedrest until the lochial flow slows.
This is not appropriate for a client who experiences a sudden gush of vaginal blood and clots after a cesarean section. Returning the client to bed and maintaining bedrest may delay ambulation and increase the risk of thromboembolism. It also does not stop the bleeding or treat the underlying cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Exenatide does not work in the same way as insulin in lowering blood glucose levels. Exenatide is a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 agonist) that works by stimulating insulin secretion in response to elevated blood glucose levels, slowing gastric emptying, and suppressing glucagon release. It does not act like exogenous insulin.
Choice B rationale:
Injecting exenatide within 30 minutes before or after a meal is the correct instruction. This timing is essential because exenatide works best when it is coordinated with meals to help control post-meal blood glucose spikes.
Choice C rationale:
There are precautions about taking exenatide with other medications. It is important for the client to discuss all medications, including potential interactions, with their healthcare provider. Some medications may need to be adjusted when taken with exenatide.
Choice D rationale:
Notifying the healthcare provider if abdominal pain occurs is a valid instruction. Exenatide can sometimes cause gastrointestinal side effects, including abdominal pain. It is essential for the client to report any adverse effects to their healthcare provider for appropriate management.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
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