A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea on how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
I could lose about 50 pounds; I might stop having so many apneic episodes.
I sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night.
I’ll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night.
It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Losing weight is one of the most effective ways to reduce the severity of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Excess weight, especially around the neck, can increase the risk of airway obstruction during sleep. Studies have shown that losing even 5-10% of body weight can significantly improve OSA symptoms. Therefore, the statement about losing 50 pounds indicates a good understanding of how weight loss can help manage sleep apnea.

Choice B Reason:
Taking a sleeping pill at night is not recommended for individuals with obstructive sleep apnea. Many sleeping pills, especially those that are sedatives or muscle relaxants, can worsen sleep apnea by relaxing the muscles of the throat, leading to increased airway obstruction. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the appropriate management of sleep apnea.
Choice C Reason:
Using a humidifier can help alleviate some symptoms associated with sleep apnea, such as dry mouth and nasal congestion, but it does not directly reduce the number of apneic episodes. While a humidifier can improve comfort, it is not a primary treatment for reducing apneic episodes in OSA patients.
Choice D Reason:
Sleeping on the back is generally not recommended for individuals with obstructive sleep apnea. This position can cause the tongue and soft tissues to collapse to the back of the throat, worsening airway obstruction. Side sleeping is usually recommended to help keep the airway open. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the best sleep practices for managing sleep apnea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pee privacy
Ensuring privacy for a patient, especially one who is pregnant, is crucial. Privacy helps maintain the patient’s dignity and comfort during medical procedures. It also fosters a trusting relationship between the patient and the healthcare provider. In this context, “Pee privacy” likely refers to ensuring the patient has privacy when providing a urine sample, which is a common procedure during pregnancy check-ups to monitor for conditions like gestational diabetes or preeclampsia.
Choice B reason: Otoscope
An otoscope is a medical device used to look into the ears. While it is an essential tool in many medical examinations, it is not specifically related to the care of a pregnant patient unless there is a specific concern about ear health. Therefore, this choice is less relevant in the context of routine pregnancy care.
Choice C reason: Tannic acid
Tannic acid is a substance that can be used for various medical purposes, including treating burns and stopping bleeding. However, it is not typically associated with routine pregnancy care. Its inclusion in this list seems out of place unless there is a specific, unusual medical condition being addressed.
Choice D reason: Pupil dilation
Pupil dilation is a procedure often performed during eye examinations to allow a better view of the retina and other structures inside the eye. While important in ophthalmology, it is not a standard procedure in the care of a pregnant patient unless there is a specific concern about the patient’s vision or eye health.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
“Call the provider” is important but not the first priority. The immediate concern is to maintain the client’s intravenous access to ensure they can receive any necessary medications or fluids promptly. Once the line is secured, the provider should be notified to receive further instructions and manage the client’s condition.
Choice B Reason:
“Notify the blood bank” is also crucial but comes after ensuring the client’s immediate safety. The blood bank needs to be informed to investigate the cause of the reaction and prevent further issues, but this step follows the initial emergency interventions.
Choice C Reason:
“Collect a urine specimen” is necessary to check for hemolysis, which can occur during a transfusion reaction. However, this is not the first step. The priority is to stabilize the client by maintaining IV access with normal saline.
Choice D Reason:
“Keep the line open with 0.9% NS through new tubing” is the correct first intervention. This action ensures that the client remains hydrated and that the IV line is available for any emergency medications or treatments. Using new tubing prevents any contamination from the transfusion set.
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