A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea on how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
I could lose about 50 pounds; I might stop having so many apneic episodes.
I sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night.
I’ll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night.
It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Losing weight is one of the most effective ways to reduce the severity of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Excess weight, especially around the neck, can increase the risk of airway obstruction during sleep. Studies have shown that losing even 5-10% of body weight can significantly improve OSA symptoms. Therefore, the statement about losing 50 pounds indicates a good understanding of how weight loss can help manage sleep apnea.
Choice B Reason:
Taking a sleeping pill at night is not recommended for individuals with obstructive sleep apnea. Many sleeping pills, especially those that are sedatives or muscle relaxants, can worsen sleep apnea by relaxing the muscles of the throat, leading to increased airway obstruction. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the appropriate management of sleep apnea.
Choice C Reason:
Using a humidifier can help alleviate some symptoms associated with sleep apnea, such as dry mouth and nasal congestion, but it does not directly reduce the number of apneic episodes. While a humidifier can improve comfort, it is not a primary treatment for reducing apneic episodes in OSA patients.
Choice D Reason:
Sleeping on the back is generally not recommended for individuals with obstructive sleep apnea. This position can cause the tongue and soft tissues to collapse to the back of the throat, worsening airway obstruction. Side sleeping is usually recommended to help keep the airway open. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the best sleep practices for managing sleep apnea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asthma
Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can cause drying of the airways and thickening of bronchial secretions, which might exacerbate asthma symptoms. However, it is not strictly contraindicated in asthma patients. Instead, caution is advised, and it should be used under medical supervision if necessary.
Choice B reason: Hypertension
While diphenhydramine can cause mild increases in blood pressure due to its anticholinergic effects, it is not contraindicated in patients with hypertension. Patients with hypertension should use it cautiously and under medical advice, but it is not an absolute contraindication.
Choice C reason: Glaucoma
Diphenhydramine is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma, particularly closed-angle glaucoma. This is because diphenhydramine has anticholinergic properties that can increase intraocular pressure, potentially worsening the condition. Patients with glaucoma should avoid using diphenhydramine to prevent complications related to increased eye pressure.
Choice D reason: Depression
Diphenhydramine is not contraindicated in patients with depression. However, it can cause drowsiness and sedation, which might affect mood and energy levels. Patients with depression should use it cautiously and under medical supervision, but it is not an absolute contraindication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 380 mL indicates oliguria. Oliguria is defined as a urine output of less than 400-500 mL per day in adults. This condition can be caused by various factors, including dehydration, kidney dysfunction, or postoperative complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing kidney function and overall fluid balance, especially after major surgeries like a colon resection.
Choice B Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 550 mL is slightly above the threshold for oliguria. While it is still relatively low, it does not meet the strict criteria for oliguria, which is typically defined as less than 400-500 mL per day. This output suggests that the client is producing an adequate amount of urine, though it may still warrant close monitoring to ensure it does not decrease further.
Choice C Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 600 mL is within the normal range and does not indicate oliguria. Normal urine output for adults is generally considered to be around 800-2000 mL per day, depending on fluid intake and other factors. This output suggests that the client’s kidneys are functioning properly and that there is no immediate concern for oliguria.
Choice D Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 720 mL is also within the normal range and does not indicate oliguria. This output is closer to the lower end of the normal range but still suggests adequate kidney function. It is important to continue monitoring the client’s urine output to ensure it remains within a healthy range, especially after surgery.
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