A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is to receive electroconvulsive therapy.
The nurse should notify the provider for which of the following findings?.
Cardiac arrhythmia
Crohn's disease.
Renal colic.
Asthma.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Cardiac arrhythmia is a contraindication for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) because ECT can cause changes in heart rate and blood pressure, which could be dangerous for someone with an existing heart condition.
Choice B rationale:
Crohn’s disease is not a contraindication for ECT. It is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease, and while it can cause significant health problems, it does not directly affect the safety or efficacy of ECT.
Choice C rationale:
Renal colic, a type of pain that can occur when a kidney stone is present, is not a contraindication for ECT. It is unrelated to the brain and nervous system and does not affect the safety or efficacy of ECT.
Choice D rationale:
Asthma is not a contraindication for ECT. While severe asthma should be well-controlled before any procedure that involves anesthesia, it is not a direct contraindication for ECT.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Psychodrama is a therapeutic approach that uses dramatic role play to help clients gain insight into their feelings and behaviors. However, it may not be the most effective for a client with antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency.
Choice B rationale:
Crisis intervention is a short-term therapy to stabilize a client during an acute crisis. It may not address the long-term needs of a client with antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency.
Choice C rationale:
Dual diagnosis treatment is designed for clients who have a mental health disorder and a substance use disorder. This would be the most appropriate for a client with antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency.
Choice D rationale:
Codependency support groups are typically for family members and friends of individuals with substance use disorders. They may not be the most beneficial for the client themselves.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Absence of seizures is not an expected outcome of fluoxetine therapy. Fluoxetine is an antidepressant, not an anticonvulsant.
Choice B rationale:
Reduction in hand tremors is not an expected outcome of fluoxetine therapy. Fluoxetine is used to treat depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, some eating disorders, and panic attacks.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased hallucinations is not an expected outcome of fluoxetine therapy. Fluoxetine is not typically used to treat conditions that cause hallucinations.
Choice D rationale:
Improved mood is an expected outcome of fluoxetine therapy. As an antidepressant, fluoxetine works by balancing chemicals in the brain that affect mood and emotions.
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