A nurse is collecting data from a postpartum client.
Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of a postpartum complication?
Fundus at umbilicus level
Urinary output 3,000 mL
Temperature 100.4 F for two days
Cesarean section shortly following delivery
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
The fundus at the umbilicus level is a normal finding in the immediate postpartum period. After delivery, the top of the uterus
(known as the fundus) is typically at the level of the umbilicus. In the days following delivery, the uterus begins to shrink and
descend into the pelvic cavity, guided by the process known as involution.
Choice B rationale:
A urinary output of 3,000 mL is unusually high and could indicate a postpartum complication. Postpartum diuresis is common
as the body eliminates excess fluid accumulated during pregnancy. However, excessive urinary output could be a sign of
postpartum complications such as postpartum preeclampsia, which can occur after the birth of the baby and is characterized
by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys.
Choice C rationale:
A temperature of 100.4 F for two days postpartum can be a normal finding. It’s not uncommon for women to experience a
slight elevation in temperature in the first 24 hours after delivery due to the exertion of labor. However, a temperature above 100.4 F beyond the first 24 hours could indicate an infection and should be evaluated.
Choice D rationale:
A cesarean section shortly following delivery is not typically a sign of a postpartum complication. It’s a surgical procedure used to deliver the baby and can be planned or unplanned due to various reasons such as the baby’s position, multiple pregnancies, or complications during labor. However, like any surgery, a cesarean section does carry risks and can increase the likelihood of certain postpartum complications such as infection or blood clots.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Rh positive individuals already have the Rh factor on their red blood cells, so they do not need Rho(D) immune globulin to
prevent sensitization.
The newborn being Rh positive does not pose a risk to an Rh positive mother, as their blood types are compatible.
Choice B rationale:
Rh positive individuals cannot develop antibodies against the Rh factor, as it is already present on their own red blood cells.
The newborn's Rh negative status does not create a risk of sensitization for the mother, as there is no Rh factor to trigger an
immune response.
Choice C rationale:
If both the mother and the newborn are Rh negative, there is no risk of Rh incompatibility.
This is because neither individual has the Rh factor on their red blood cells, so there is no potential for sensitization.
Choice D rationale:
When an Rh negative mother carries an Rh positive fetus, there is a risk of Rh sensitization during pregnancy and delivery.
This occurs when fetal blood cells cross the placenta and enter the mother's bloodstream, exposing her immune system to the
Rh factor.
If the mother's immune system recognizes the Rh factor as foreign, it can produce antibodies against it.
These antibodies can cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies and attack the red blood cells of Rh positive fetuses,
leading to hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
Rho(D) immune globulin is a medication that can prevent Rh sensitization by binding to Rh positive fetal blood cells that have
entered the mother's bloodstream.
This prevents the mother's immune system from recognizing the Rh factor and producing antibodies.
Rho(D) immune globulin is typically given to Rh negative mothers within 72 hours of delivery of an Rh positive newborn, as well as after other events that could lead to Rh sensitization, such as miscarriage, abortion, or ectopic pregnancy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
2+ patellar reflex: A hyperactive patellar reflex (also known as a knee-jerk reflex) is a sign of hyperreflexia, which can be a neurological symptom of preeclampsia. Hyperreflexia results from heightened nerve excitability and can manifest as exaggerated reflexes. In preeclampsia, it stems from central nervous system irritability due to cerebral edema or other neurological disturbances.
2+ proteinuria: Proteinuria, defined as the presence of excessive protein in the urine, is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia. It indicates glomerular damage in the kidneys, leading to protein leakage into the urine. The degree of proteinuria is graded on a scale of 1+ to 4+, with 2+ representing a significant level that warrants immediate attention.
Choice B rationale:
24 weeks of gestation: While 24 weeks of gestation is considered early preterm birth, it is not inherently a finding that requires immediate reporting to the RN in the context of postpartum care. The focus on the postpartum unit is primarily on the health of the mother and newborn after delivery, rather than managing ongoing pregnancies.
Choice C rationale:
Preeclampsia: While preeclampsia is a serious condition that necessitates close monitoring and management, the mere diagnosis of preeclampsia without additional concerning findings does not automatically require immediate reporting to the RN. It's essential to assess for specific signs and symptoms that indicate worsening or complications of preeclampsia, such as those mentioned in Choice A.
Choice D rationale:
Heart rate of 100/min: A heart rate of 100 beats per minute is within the normal range for adults, even postpartum. Mild tachycardia (increased heart rate) can be a physiological response to various factors such as pain, anxiety, or exertion, and it does not always signify a serious problem. However, if the heart rate is persistently elevated or accompanied by other concerning symptoms, it would warrant further evaluation.
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