In the early 20th century, a frontal lobotomy was a common treatment for violent behaviors. Which descriptions procedure is accurate?
A surgical procedure that drills holes in the front of the skull to drain fluid.
A surgical procedure that severs the frontal lobes of the brain from the thalamus.
A procedure that delivers an electrical stimulus to the frontal lobes of the brain.
A surgical procedure that inserts implants into the frontal lobes of the brain.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Drilling holes in the skull to drain fluid is more aligned with procedures for treating conditions like hydrocephalus (accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain) rather than a lobotomy. A lobotomy involves more invasive alterations to brain tissue.
B. In a prefrontal lobotomy, the surgeon would sever the connections between the frontal lobes and other parts of the brain, including the thalamus, to disrupt neural pathways. This was done in an attempt to alter behavior and mood. The procedure aimed to modify the function of the frontal lobes to reduce symptoms of severe mental disorders, but it often had significant and detrimental side effects.
C. This description refers to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), not a lobotomy. ECT involves applying electrical currents to the brain to induce controlled seizures and is used to treat severe depression and other mental health conditions. It is different from the surgical approach of a lobotomy.
D. This description does not accurately describe a lobotomy. The lobotomy procedure involved cutting or damaging brain tissue rather than inserting implants. The insertion of implants into the brain is not characteristic of lobotomy and is not a common practice in the historical context of this procedure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is the defense mechanism where a person refuses to acknowledge a painful reality. In this case, the client is denying their illness and the need for hospitalization.
B. This involves reverting to childlike behaviors as a way to cope with stress. It doesn't fit the scenario.
C. This is attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings onto others. There's no evidence of this in the given situation.
D. This involves creating excuses to justify unacceptable behavior. The client is not justifying their behavior but denying it.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Mental health disorders, including schizophrenia, are significant risk factors for suicide.
B. Marital status is not a significant predictor of suicide risk.
C. Substance abuse is strongly linked to increased suicide risk.
D. While suicide rates are highest among older adults, it's important to note that suicide affects people of all ages.
E. While women are more likely to attempt suicide, men are more likely to complete suicide.
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