In the early 20th century, a frontal lobotomy was a common treatment for violent behaviors. Which descriptions procedure is accurate?
A surgical procedure that drills holes in the front of the skull to drain fluid.
A surgical procedure that severs the frontal lobes of the brain from the thalamus.
A procedure that delivers an electrical stimulus to the frontal lobes of the brain.
A surgical procedure that inserts implants into the frontal lobes of the brain.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Drilling holes in the skull to drain fluid is more aligned with procedures for treating conditions like hydrocephalus (accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain) rather than a lobotomy. A lobotomy involves more invasive alterations to brain tissue.
B. In a prefrontal lobotomy, the surgeon would sever the connections between the frontal lobes and other parts of the brain, including the thalamus, to disrupt neural pathways. This was done in an attempt to alter behavior and mood. The procedure aimed to modify the function of the frontal lobes to reduce symptoms of severe mental disorders, but it often had significant and detrimental side effects.
C. This description refers to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), not a lobotomy. ECT involves applying electrical currents to the brain to induce controlled seizures and is used to treat severe depression and other mental health conditions. It is different from the surgical approach of a lobotomy.
D. This description does not accurately describe a lobotomy. The lobotomy procedure involved cutting or damaging brain tissue rather than inserting implants. The insertion of implants into the brain is not characteristic of lobotomy and is not a common practice in the historical context of this procedure.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This is an inappropriate and potentially harmful response. Restraints should be used as a last resort and only under specific circumstances. In this case, they are not necessary and could escalate the situation.
B. Attempting to reason with an agitated client is unlikely to be effective and could further escalate the situation.
C. Seclusion should be used as a last resort and only under specific circumstances. In this case, it is not necessary and could increase the client's agitation and sense of isolation.
D. This is the most appropriate response as it sets a clear boundary, gives the client time to calm down, and allows the nurse to return when the situation is more stable.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prozac is sometimes used to treat certain anxiety disorders, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and panic disorder, its primary indication is not for anxiety.
B. Prozac is not used to treat schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that is usually managed with antipsychotic medications. Prozac, as an SSRI, does not address the primary symptoms of schizophrenia, such as delusions and hallucinations.
C. Prozac is primarily prescribed for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). It is one of the most commonly used SSRIs for managing depression. The medication works by increasing levels of serotonin in the brain, which can help improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression.
D. Prozac is not typically used as the primary treatment for bipolar disorder. While it may be used in combination with mood stabilizers for managing depressive episodes in bipolar disorder, it is not used alone due to the risk of potentially triggering manic episodes.
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