Four clients are scheduled to receive IV infusions, but there are only three intravenous (IV) pumps available. Which prescribed infusion can most safely be administered without an IV infusion pump?
Ceftriaxone in 5% Dextrose in Water prescribed for pneumonia.
Heparin in Normal Saline prescribed for deep vein thrombosis.
Magnesium in Normal Saline prescribed for hypomagnesemia.
Regular insulin in Normal Saline prescribed for ketoacidosis.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic that can be given by gravity infusion without an IV pump, as long as the nurse monitors the flow rate and adjusts the roller clamp as needed. The dose and duration of ceftriaxone are usually fixed and not affected by minor fluctuations in the infusion rate.
Choice B reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant that requires a precise and constant infusion rate to prevent bleeding or clotting complications. An IV pump is essential to deliver heparin safely and accurately.
Choice C reason: Magnesium is an electrolyte that can cause serious adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias,
respiratory depression, and muscle weakness if infused too rapidly or too slowly. An IV pump is necessary to control the infusion rate and prevent magnesium toxicity or deficiency.
Choice D reason: Regular insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels and requires careful titration based on frequent blood glucose monitoring. An IV pump is required to deliver insulin at a consistent and adjustable rate to avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Waiting until the end of the second week to see if the orientee is able to complete her assignments is not the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would delay providing feedback and support to the orientee, who may feel frustrated and discouraged by her performance. The charge nurse should intervene as soon as possible to help the orientee improve her skills and confidence.
Choice B Reason: Assigning the orientee to work with an experienced nurse who is a long-time, efficient employee is the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would provide the orientee with a role model and a mentor who can guide her through the daily tasks, share tips and tricks, and offer constructive feedback and encouragement. The orientee would benefit from learning from someone who has mastered the workflow and expectations of the unit.
Choice C Reason: Informing the supervisor that for client safety this nurse should be assigned to a slower-paced unit is not the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would imply that the orientee is incompetent and unsuitable for the unit, which may damage her self-esteem and motivation. The charge nurse should first try to help the orientee adjust to the unit and develop her competencies before considering a transfer.
Choice D Reason: Talking to the orientee and asking her if she has considered working in a less stressful environment is not the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would suggest that the charge nurse has given up on the orientee and does not believe in her potential. The charge nurse should first try to understand the challenges and needs of the orientee and provide appropriate guidance and support before suggesting alternative career options.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is not the first priority because it is not a life-threatening condition. The male adolescent may have gastroenteritis or food poisoning, which can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. The nurse should monitor his vital signs and fluid intake, but he can wait for further assessment.
Choice B Reason: This is the first priority because it is a potential surgical emergency. The female client may have appendicitis, which can cause peritonitis and sepsis if left untreated. The nurse should assess her pain level, vital signs, and abdominal signs, and prepare her for diagnostic tests and possible surgery.
Choice C Reason: This is not the first priority because it is a chronic condition that does not require immediate intervention. The elderly client may have intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral arterial disease. The nurse should educate him on leg care and exercise, but he can wait for further assessment.
Choice D Reason: This is not the first priority because it is a common condition that can be treated with antibiotics. The child may have a bacterial infection, such as bronchitis or pneumonia, which can cause productive cough and fever. The nurse should auscultate his lungs and check his temperature, but he can wait for further assessment.
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