Four clients are scheduled to receive IV infusions, but there are only three intravenous (IV) pumps available. Which prescribed infusion can most safely be administered without an IV infusion pump?
Ceftriaxone in 5% Dextrose in Water prescribed for pneumonia.
Heparin in Normal Saline prescribed for deep vein thrombosis.
Magnesium in Normal Saline prescribed for hypomagnesemia.
Regular insulin in Normal Saline prescribed for ketoacidosis.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic that can be given by gravity infusion without an IV pump, as long as the nurse monitors the flow rate and adjusts the roller clamp as needed. The dose and duration of ceftriaxone are usually fixed and not affected by minor fluctuations in the infusion rate.
Choice B reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant that requires a precise and constant infusion rate to prevent bleeding or clotting complications. An IV pump is essential to deliver heparin safely and accurately.
Choice C reason: Magnesium is an electrolyte that can cause serious adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias,
respiratory depression, and muscle weakness if infused too rapidly or too slowly. An IV pump is necessary to control the infusion rate and prevent magnesium toxicity or deficiency.
Choice D reason: Regular insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels and requires careful titration based on frequent blood glucose monitoring. An IV pump is required to deliver insulin at a consistent and adjustable rate to avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Cautioning the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment is not the best approach because it is too punitive and does not address the underlying cause of the tardiness. The nurse manager should first try to understand why the nurse is late and offer support or guidance if needed.
Choice B Reason: Offering to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings is not the best approach because it may not solve the problem of tardiness and may create resentment among other staff members who have to adjust their schedules. The nurse manager should respect the nurse's preferences and availability but also hold the nurse accountable for fulfilling their responsibilities.
Choice C Reason: This is the best approach because it communicates clearly and respectfully what is expected of the nurse and why it is important for them to be punctual. The nurse manager should also provide feedback and recognition when the nurse improves their attendance.
Choice D reason: Having the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy is not the best approach because it may imply that the nurse is unaware or indifferent to the policy. The nurse manager should assume that the nurse knows and agrees with the policy, but may need some assistance or motivation to follow it.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This client has a potential airway obstruction and needs close monitoring by the nurse. Laryngeal nerve damage can cause vocal cord paralysis, which can lead to respiratory distress and aspiration.
Choice B Reason: This client needs education on the medication and its side effects, but this can be done by the PN under the supervision of the nurse. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone that replaces deficient hormones in hypothyroidism.
Choice C Reason: This client needs ongoing management of diabetes, but this can be done by the PN under the supervision of the nurse. Glycosylated Hgb (Hgb A1C) is a measure of the average blood glucose level over the past three months.
Choice D Reason: This client has a life-threatening condition that requires immediate treatment with corticosteroids, but this can be done by the PN under the supervision of the nurse. Addison's crisis is a severe form of adrenal insufficiency that causes hypotension, shock, and electrolyte imbalance.
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