Four clients are scheduled to receive IV infusions, but there are only three intravenous (IV) pumps available. Which prescribed infusion can most safely be administered without an IV infusion pump?
Ceftriaxone in 5% Dextrose in Water prescribed for pneumonia.
Heparin in Normal Saline prescribed for deep vein thrombosis.
Magnesium in Normal Saline prescribed for hypomagnesemia.
Regular insulin in Normal Saline prescribed for ketoacidosis.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic that can be given by gravity infusion without an IV pump, as long as the nurse monitors the flow rate and adjusts the roller clamp as needed. The dose and duration of ceftriaxone are usually fixed and not affected by minor fluctuations in the infusion rate.
Choice B reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant that requires a precise and constant infusion rate to prevent bleeding or clotting complications. An IV pump is essential to deliver heparin safely and accurately.
Choice C reason: Magnesium is an electrolyte that can cause serious adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias,
respiratory depression, and muscle weakness if infused too rapidly or too slowly. An IV pump is necessary to control the infusion rate and prevent magnesium toxicity or deficiency.
Choice D reason: Regular insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels and requires careful titration based on frequent blood glucose monitoring. An IV pump is required to deliver insulin at a consistent and adjustable rate to avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This client may need another dose of hydromorphone if the pain is not relieved by the previous one. A PN can administer this medication under the supervision of a RN and monitor the client's response.
Choice B Reason: This client's vital signs are within normal limits and indicate that the morphine is effective and not causing respiratory depression. A PN can assess and document the client's vital signs and pain level.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct answer because this client has acute and severe pain that may require immediate intervention and reassessment. An RN can evaluate the cause and severity of the pain, administer additional analgesics as prescribed, and implement nonpharmacological measures to relieve the pain.
Choice D Reason: This client has chronic and stable pain that is managed by a fentanyl patch. A PN can replace the patch according to the schedule and instructions provided by the RN.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Demonstrating the proper use of personal protective equipment is important, but not the first action. The charge nurse should first assess the UAP's level of understanding and address any misconceptions or fears about HIV transmission.
Choice B reason: Offering to assist the UAP with the collection of the specimen may be helpful, but not the first action. The charge nurse should first educate the UAP about HIV transmission and infection control measures, and then evaluate the UAP's competence and confidence in performing the task.
Choice C reason: Providing the UAP with the infection control policy is relevant, but not the first action. The charge nurse should first explain the rationale and principles of infection control to the UAP, and then refer to the policy as a guideline and resource.
Choice D reason: Determining the UAP's knowledge about HIV transmission is the first and most appropriate action for the charge nurse to take, as it will help identify any gaps or misinformation that may cause fear or anxiety in the UAP. The charge nurse should then provide accurate and evidence-based information about HIV transmission, prevention, and treatment, and answer any questions or concerns that the UAP may have.

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